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  5. "Ella se va a caer."

"Ella se va a caer."

Translation:She is going to fall down.

July 21, 2013



what is the purpose of "se" in this sentence?


"Caer" always takes a reflexive pronoun when referring to a person or item falling down.

"se me caen los pantalones" - 'my pants are falling down" "siempre se cae en las escaleras" - "he always falls on the staircase"


But caer also has a meaning "to fall" doesn't it? When and how would you use caer without se then?


Hi John! I'm also having a hard time getting my head around these verbs. Here's a page that helped me a bit. It may help you, too. http://spanish.about.com/od/verbs/a/caer-vs-caerse.htm

I also spent about an hour reading different opinions of when to use "caer" and when to use "caerse" and, in a nutshell, it all seems to boil down to that it doesn't really make much difference which you use.


It's not always.

You can say caer on a person without the se, it's just very uncommon to say it.


The verb is irse, therefore, se va, in the third person singular form. This form followed by an infinitive (caer) = going to + fall. Another example is Él se va a visitar mañana. (He is going to visit tomorrow.)


Talca! This is a construction of a future tense:

ir (the auxilary verb and conjugated according to the subject) + a + the main verb in infinitive

In this construction the auxilary verb is ir and nothing else (not irse). The main verb can of course be reflexive as in Duo's caerse or in your second example visitarse.


I put she will fall over. Should this be right or is there a different meaning I am not seeing?


As far as I'm aware, 'fall over' and 'fall down' are British and American equivalents. I have reported 'fall over' to be accepted


I agree - my use of 'fall over' was rejected.

  • 1970

When I put my cursor over the verb, it provided the translation "fall over." So, I typed that phrase in the answer. It said I was wrong.


I put 'fall over' and it rejected it, saying the correct translation was 'fall down'!


I agree, in English we often interchange 'down' with 'over'. It should be accepted in this case since there is no context on how the subject is falling.


"I am going to fall" is accepted now (nov2016)


A Scam, I know this post is old, but why would va ever be translated as correct for first-person "I"? That would be Voy a, so I am puzzled by Duo's acceptance.


I cannot hear the "a" part of "va a caer" at all in the quick version.


Agreed. Stuff like this makes me think I'll never ascend to full fluency unless I live in a Spanish speaking country.


Don't worry too much. I'm sure that if you keep studying, you will know when it should be there, even if you didn't hear it.


I listen to some Spanish songs with subtitles to sing along and to practice my Spanish and found that in the spoken and sung Spanish, some words tend to be left out


Is it possible to say, ella va a caerse?


Perhaps the uses of the future tenses are different in Spanish, but in English the 'future simple' and the 'future going to' tenses are used differently. The future simple is used to talk about prediction, while the future going to is used to talk about plans. Isn't there a similar difference between 'ella se va a caer' and 'ella se caerá'?


"Se va a caer" = She is going to fall.

"Se caerá" = She will fall.


Can you say "vas a caerse"?


Not sure of your question. If you are asking if you can attach an object pronoun to the end of the infinitive, the answer is yes. You have the option of placing it before the verb or hanging it on the end of an infinitive or present participle. So "Se va a caer (a usted)" and "Va a caerse" are just alternative ways of saying the same thing. Both are correct.

However, if the sentence is a positive command, the object pronoun must be hung on the end of the verb. But, if it is a negative command, the object pronoun has to go back before the verb.

An example:
"¡Dime!" (Tell me!) is correct (but, "Me di" is WRONG).
"¡No me digas!" (Don't tell me) is correct (but, "¡No díme!" is WRONG).

If you are asking if your sentence is correct, the answer is no. You need to use the pronoun "te" with the second person singular form of the verb. If you are asking if this is a correct translation of Duo's sentence, the answer is also no.

So your sentences would be:
* Vas a caerte. (You are going to fall.) or,
* Te vas a caer. (You are going to fall.)
And, acceptable variations for Duo's sentence should be:
* Ella se va a caer or,
* Ella va a caerse.


Thanks a lot for clarifying a little on the use of reflexive pronouns with infinitives. So If the sentence is positive or interrogative the pronoun can be either in front of the verb or after the infinitive. But in the negative it must allways be in front of the verb. Right?


Mishasan2015 The pronoun can be after the infinitive also in a negative sentence: No vas a caerte. Ella no va a caerse



NoHabla... What I can see I am right. We both use the same source StudySpanish and it ends with:

«These same rules apply for questions and negative statements.


Juan no necesita lavarlo.

John doesn’t need to wash it.»


Hi NoHablaEspanol. Yeah, I must have been half-asleep when I wrote that comment. Thanks for catching my error. I've revised my comment. Hope we agree now!


Later I thought that maybe you had Imperative in your mind, but I could not find this discussion. In Imperative one has the Object Pronoun after the verb if the statement is affirmative but before if it is negative

¡cómpralo! /buy it!

¡no lo compres!/ do not buy it

Using Object Pronouns with Commands https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/procomm


As a native English speaker this distinction is not at all obvious to me, except maybe a hint of it in first person.But: "If she climbs on that she is going to fall" - prediction? "He said he will come tomorrow" - plan?


I always thought this also, however it's not acknowledged on Duolingo for some reason... :S


You don't need the se in the sentence. Ella va a caer is perfectly fine to use.

  • 1644

I disagree. Especially when you talk about someone falling it requires the verb caerse which uses the reflexive pronoun se.


Caerse also has the meaning of dropping something, as in "se me cayo" el libro, literally, the book fell from me. (In Spanish, the implication is that it was the book's fault)


I said, "She is going to fall over," and got it wrong. How is that so?


I wish to register my disagreement with the silly translation of this spanish sentence based on the "hints" Duo provides. Either explain 'idioms' or the use of "se" in this sentence as well as the lack of the word for "down."


so,if the verb has an "r" at the end, I will have to put the "a" there? For example, I will have to put "a comer" instead of just "comer" in a sentence?



Verbs with an "r" in the end are in INFINITIVE, the verb's basic form

<pre>LINKED VERBS are two verbs used together in the form: </pre>

Verb1 (conjugated) + preposition + Verb2 (in Infinitive)

If the first verb is IR, as here, then the preposition is A and, yes, the second verb is always in Infinitive

In general the choice of preposition depends on the first verb. If it is IR then the preposition is A but for other first verbs the prep. can be: de, en, con, por, que or nothing. See:

Linked verbs in Spanish http://users.ipfw.edu/jehle/courses/vrbsprep.htm


Do I have this right: se is (to) him, (to) it, (to) them. Where is (to) her in this sentence. Ella is going to fall down, not el (tilde over the e).


What is there is no 'se' in it. What will it mean?


The same thing, RonaldB. Try both of the sentences here: http://www.spanishdict.com/translate/Ella%20va%20a%20caer.


"se" is in the sentence ,really. How did Duolingo get "abajo" from "se"??!?


"Se" is being used here as a reflexive pronoun. The verb here is "caerse" which means to fall or to fall down. There is no "abajo" (for "down") needed in this sentence. See this article for an introduction to reflexive verbs:


I have wondered what other diirections people fall besides "down." If there are no other directions then "fall down" is a redundant statement on the order of "wet water" which is stupid, but also the commonly used phrase, "sit down."

The opposite, though, makes sense.

"Sit up" means to elevate oneself from a reclining position.

But a corresponding, "fall up" would be rediculous.


Yes, I started to wonder about it last night, and finally fell asleep with:

Caerse = fall down ok, but more exactly it means vertically down

caer = fall, in a sloping direction. If somebody gives you a push then your falling curve will be a parabola

But now: Trayectoria balística https://es.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trayectoria_bal%C3%ADstica

The problem is that the ballistic bodies in this article all move with the verb caer

Rozamiento what a beautiful word, means friction


What about "Ella va a se caer"?


No, you cannot split "va a caer". Se va a caer or va a caerse


Corrected to "she has going to fall" - it can never be "has" but has to be "is"


"Fall over" not accepted 22/3 2017 Reported


When I clicked caer, it said fall off. I saw nothing about down, so off should also be correct.


I almost chose she is "leaving" to fall. Ugh!!!! Stupid hints don't always show right away the right answer.


Oi, Duolingo: brush-up on your English! "to fall over" and to "fall down" mean the same thing!


Even the bloody hint says 'to fall off', but when I use it, it's WRONG? I call B.S!


Because of the word “se”, I put she is going to fall over it. Why is that wrong?


What makes it a reflexive verb?


Why does the reader pronounce caer as ca'esh? is this normal?

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