"You do not believe me."
Translation:Ustedes no me creen.
It said that "no me crees" was wrong, but that "no me creés" (with an accent) and "tú no me crees" (no accent) are both correct. The RAE conjugator lists both "crees" and "creés" for tú. What is the difference?
"Creer" and "creés" is the same conjugartion in this context. But in different parts of the Latin America we use "crees" but at the same time "creés" but for exapmple "Vos no me creés (You don't belive me)" is the same that "Tu no me crees". Depends in the country, culture and relationship with the people.
Whenever you have a "no" it goes before any object pronouns. It also always goes before any verb.
Why cant i say...usted me no cree? Why does no have to go before me, I thiught wording is flexible with these?
You can't do that word order. I don't know why. Why, I don't know. D̶o̶n̶'̶t̶ ̶w̶h̶y̶ ̶k̶n̶o̶w̶ ̶I̶.̶ ;) Some word order changes are ok, and some aren't. You have to have "no" before "me."
I have been waiting to post this info found regarding believe. I'd like to hear from anyone that sees the difference. Here goes...
There are a few verbs that are accompanied by indirect-object pronouns even though their English equivalents would use a direct object in the same way. One example is creer: No lo creo (I don't believe it), but no le creo (I don't believe him/her.)
You would have to do both..."No me crees a mi." The "me" is necessary; "a mi" is not necessary but is ok (though I think would usually be done for extra emphasis). I don't know if DuoLingo would think it is ok, though...sometime the program is funny about what it will accept.
No...Here is info about when you can attach the pronoun to the verb. http://spanish.about.com/od/sentencestructure/a/attachedpronoun.htm