because we have "peuvent" in this sentence, it's just like in english :can+ infinitive
As per sitesurf, if there are 2 verbs in a sentence, the second verb will always take its infinitive form.
Because manger is not the verb being conjugated. Pouvoir is the conjugated verb (peuvent-ils part) and means something like to be able to. The sentence translates as are they able to eat blah blah blah. Manger is the to eat part. Does that make any sense?
@KaitlynV- I've typed digits in answers before and DL accepted them. I think you may have gotten it wrong because English doesn't really grammatically turn sentences into questions like that so much, though in speaking it is not uncommon.
i put "are they able to eat 11 apples" instead of "can they eat 11 apples" and i got it wrong -- peuvre is "to be able to" no??
Why does it sound like he says "puev-til"? Is the "vent" syllable disposable?
Why is "they can eat 11 apples?" wrong? in french you can ask something by adding a question mark to a statement....
Because peuvent-ils means can they? If they wrote ils peuvent...? Then you would say they can with a ?
They probably want you to say "onze" instead of 11, to show that you know the french word for it -this ones all about numbers after all ;)
It seems impossible to tell the difference between the singular and plural in this sentence. Peut-il manger sounds exactly like peuvent-ils manger. Is it just because one person couldn't possibly eat that many apples?
I don't see how "peut-il" shouldn't be accepted. What's the difference in pronunciation?
how the ❤❤❤❤ are you supposed to differentiate between "pomme" and pommes", or "ils" and "il", or ANY forms of "mange?" they all sound exactly the same!
Again, like the drinks the drinkers were finishing, is this 11 apples each, or split between the group?
wtf is this bull ❤❤❤❤ i didnt put an s on the ❤❤❤❤❤❤❤ apples how tf does that have anything to do with this dump of a language