I knew what this meant, but was pretty confused by it. "Se" is reflexive or passive and refers to the same person as "ella" right? Assuming that's the case, why isn't there an objective pronoun representing "him" such as "lo" or "le" ? In other examples i've always seen it said that you have to have that pronoun even if you have "a él."
Becausing she's not feeling him, she's feeling herself; she feels she is superior to him. You wouldn't say "yo siento enferma", you would say "yo me siento enferma", because you are using that verb on yourself. The se in this sentence is doing the same, she is using the verb on herself.
What's weird though is that the answer "She feels she is superior to him" is marked incorrect. Only accepted "She feels superior to him".
A close to the orginal Spanish would be "She feels herself superior to him"
Unfortunately, "She feels herself superior to him" was not accepted. (I don't have ability to report it on mobile)
18/8/17 "she feels she is superior to him" is accepted as correct. Although from reading the many comments below, not everyone agrees with that.
1. sentirse is not really reflexive and doesn't imply or call for a reflexive pronoun. It's a pronominal verb that changes the meaning of sentir slightly. It is meant to indicate the subject's state/condition. In this case it's a feeling of superiority.
2. the phrase "feels herself better than" introduces an ambiguity not present in the original sentence, because "feel" has multiple meanings in English. Your sentence could be interpreted in a physical sense, as in, "She feels herself better than he (does)." Thus, it is not "more grammatically correct."
Yes... yes... fascinating. But I still don't get why "She feels she is superior to him" is marked wrong. I am so frustrated right now, I am pulling out gobs of my own hair.
Because it has the same meaning but isn't a translation. This question has a double purpose and serves not only as an adjective excersize but as well as a remainder of using pronouns in this particular way. You can explain it to yourself using additional words like 'herself', but the original sentence is compact and so is the translation.
With she feels she is superior to him a believe it would be ella se siente ser superior a el, you have to add the verb "to be" in there, which isnt there in the original sentence, so if you were to translate it that way youre adding words, try not to make it harder on yourself, try to take it one word(or phrase) at a timw
Sometimes when you translate to english change... but that "she feels she is superior to him" is weird. Don't worry Joe, you can do it, ¡Tú puedes! :)
That sounds a little weird, it might be grammatical, though. However, when using Duolingo, I always try to shy away from using strange sentences.
What is wrong with she feels herself superior to him? Se sienta means exactly that. She feels herself is an exact translation of the reflexive verb.
I understand what you say about using the reflexive but I still don't understand why "a él" is used without an object pronoun for "él" before the verb. Can you explain further? Thanks!
It clarifies e.g ella se siente superior can be said and make sense if in conversation it is already clear who is feeling superior to. But, if it's not clear already then you can use "a él" after the verb to clarify.
Mandarselo - is I send it to him / her / you all / you formal Mandarselo a él/ ella/ usted/ vosotros - now clarified.
(I think this is correct). Learning this now from Michel Thomas.
They just rejected "she feels herself superior to him" which seems like an accurate trans
Only indirect object pronouns are mandatory. Direct object pronouns can only be used if the context of what they stand for is already established, and they are not used with a complete direct object, only instead of it, as far as I am aware.
However, that is not quite relevant in this case anyway. The sentence structure here is
[Subject] [Reflexive verb] [Adjectival phrase]
[Ella] [se siente] [superior a él]
"A él" is a part of the adjectival phrase and is neither a direct nor an indirect object of the verb to begin with.
I think it is because "a el" is just a prepositional phrase here; it does not indicate either a direct or indirect object. If the sentence were "She wants to go with him" or "She walked by him," the phrase that includes "him" is still neither a direct nor indirect object, because "with" and "by," like "to" (in this case) are prepositions.
Thanks, that is still gonna be tricky to differentiate, but it helps a lot.
Native speakers jam their words together just like that when speaking. We need to get used to it, because it's a pain when trying to understand a native speaker.
I believe I got an email saying that this is accepted now, but I deleted the email
I just got it wrong by answering this way. I would like to know why it's wrong too.
i put "she feels she is superior to him" and it was marked as wrong. how would my translation be phrased in spanish?
It's slightly better English, but not as literal a translation. I reported it as should be accepted, too.
Why isn't it "Ella LA siente superior a él". Because wouldn't it be "me siento superior a él"? I don't think we were ever properly explained the reflexive se. It's so confusing.
This site pretty much never explains things, and that is intentional, as its success relies on your own personal discovery, aided by your favourite search engine, so your participation in trying to understand things is active.
"Me" can mean both "me" and "myself", and which one it is, is usually completely obvious from the context, i.e., if the subject is "yo", it is obviously reflexive. However, 3rd person is more difficult, because she could be acting on herself, or she could be acting another object, expressed with a feminine noun, thus the forms are separate: "la" (her, someone else) and "se" (herself).
nretat: First you can't use 'la' because it is a direct object pronoun; Ella is third person singular and takes the verb sentirse also used in the third person singular 'se siente' because it is pronominal/reflective and third person pronoun 'se' is mandatory. This whole sentence is in Third person singular. 'me siento' is FIRST personal singular, so you can not use it.
i wrote "she feels herself superior to him" and it was wrong. Is "oneself" ever used in translation on Duolingo? would it be "ella LA siente..." to be translated with "herself" used?
Can it be "she is feeling superior to him" ? If not can someone help me understand why please? :)
I would really like to answer your question, but I am not sure I can. This is my take on it, if you are saying 'she is feeling superior' it seems to be a subtle difference in the meaning. It is as though she is feeling superior at the moment, where as 'she feels superior' seems as though she feels it all the time. Now, the question is how would we say it in Spanish. Perhaps it would be 'ella se está sintiendo superior a él'.
I know that most text books say one can use the Spanish Present tense indicative mood for 'is feeling', but Duo seems not to like it. Duo tends not to accept that sort of translation unless there is no other way to translate the meaning. I can't think of a good sentence, but it would be something like 'she is going to college next fall'. Maybe an advanced student or native Spanish speaker can elaborate more.
She is feeling superior to him -- does not work, although it seems like a comparable sentence.
I thought "a él" would be an indirect object pronoun because it answers the question, "to whom". Can someone explain this, please. Thanks for any help.
Is "a él" in this sentence a prepositional pronoun? Then, for example, if she felt superior to you instead of him would the sentence be: "Ella se siente superior a ti"?
Gracias, jfgordy. I've been depending on seeing more obvious prepositional phrases. This one with just "a él" confused me.
I'm trying to glean the patterns for the use of these accent marks, and it seemed like Spanish was using one whenever the stress comes on a syllable other than the penultimate, but that doesn't seem to apply here, even though the audio is clearly stressing the last syllable of "superior" in this example. Why the exception? Or is it an illusion that there's a pattern, and you just have to memorize random orthography for each word?
Hi Bob, It is lucky that there are some standard rules used in Spanish for accents and stress. I have found this tutorial that explains the rules. The spelling of some of the Spanish words will have to be memorized, but the biggest majority follow a pattern. So here we go. http://users.ipfw.edu/jehle/courses/accents.htm
Can't u also just say, "Ella siente superior a él.", to mean: She feels superior to him; and omit the se all all together?...Since each word of that sentence in Spanish literally means/translates that in English, word for word. Why or why not?
No, you can't leave out "se." It's necessary to indicate the reflexive nature of the verb. There is some very good discussion on this point in the comments here. The confusion about this cuts both ways too. A lot of people, seeing the reflexive, wonder why Duo doesn't accept "She feels herself..." Duo is being a little too strict, since it's not grammatically incorrect to include "herself." However, English speakers regularly drop reflexive pronouns and Duo is simply reinforcing that usage.
So, here is one of those instances where the common Spanish and English phrasings don't align perfectly. The way to make them line up more would be to add "herself" to the English sentence, not to remove "se" from the Spanish sentence.
'She feels herself' sounds a bit clunky in English, I think more appropriate would be 'she herself feels' we don't use it much in the third person in English, but I do use 'I myself' fairly often
I get you. However in Spanish this verb sentirse means to mentally perceive or physically perceive. There is no need to add 'herself' because it is not in the Duo sentence. In order to add more to a sentence we would have to add 'ella misma' ella misma se siente surperior a él.(she herself feels superior to him)
A lot of people don't realize that reflective verbs are only one form of the pronominal verbs. There are 4 types but all use the reflexive pronouns. This one is idiomatic and the reason it is idiomatic is because in its pronominal form, it changes the meaning. And HERE is a small blub on the subject.
Bigwig40, yes - you added three words, so although in English you could say that sentence & it would MEAN the same, you would do better to keep it simple for a Duo answer.
"She thinks she's better than him." Another possible translation? I think it's more commonly spoken.
I can't understand (se) at all and when I have to use it in the sentences
I submitted "she feels she is better than he" - it came back as accepted, except for the final 'he' which they corrected to 'him'. Once again, correct English response has been incorrectly ''corrected''!! - The complete (and therefore implied) sentence would be "she feels she's better than he [IS]" The nominative, not the accusative, is correct.
Why is "She feels better than him" marked incorrect, but "She feels she's better than him is correct"? Both can be said to mean the same thing in English.
The "personal a" applies when you have a direct object that is a specific person (or group of people) or is something you are explicitly personifying. In this sentence, there is no direct object and, therefore, no need for the "personal a."
Going a little deeper, the verb "sentirse " is pronominal and merely connects the subject with a descriptive noun or adjective. You could replace it with "ser " (as in "she is superior to him") and the structure would remain the same. In this particular case, the subject is "ella" = "she" and the adjective (phrase) is "superior a él" = "superior to him."