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How to Say "I Will Have" in Spanish

Like the title, I was just wondering how to say "I will have" in spanish. Used in the context of "I will have two bean and cheese tacos" or any food order like that. I believe what I've read seems to be that it is "Voy a tener dos tacos de frijoles y queso" But why is that? Please explain exactly what the "voy a tener" part means and why its that. Because I learned that "Yo" is I but why does that not seem to be used in any way when saying that phrase? Thanks for the help! I greatly appreciate it!

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5 years ago

6 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/flinda

Voy is only applicable to the first person singular , so " Yo " is understood . It is perfectly acceptable to use it though .

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Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BlackHeart01
BlackHeart01
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voy a tener = i am going to have , yo tendré = i will have. Aunque necesito mas contexto, porque yo puedo decirlo en cualquiera de las dos formas. Respondiendo tu segunda pregunta, a pesar de que ustedes si es obligatorio usar el I/you/he/she/it en las oraciones, en español no suele ser asi, aqui no es obligatorio usar los pronombres cuando hablamos en primera persona por lo tanto decir "yo voy a tener" y "voy a tener" siempre se referirá a la persona quien habla. Saludos ;)

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Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jspitler

"Voy a tener dos tacos..." is the closest translation you can use to say "I will have two tacos..." although it does literally mean "I am going to have two tacos..."

1
Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rickharned
rickharned
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To elaborate a little on flinda's concise response, in that sentence, the "yo" is normally unnecessary, since the first person is clearly stated in the "voy" form. Spanish is much better at that than English. You can use the "yo," but it generally implies greater emphasis, as in, "I don't know about you guys, but I (bold and underlined) am going to have two tacos!"

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Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/surelyourejoking

For food I always learnt that 'tomar' is a better verb than 'tener'. 'Tomar' means 'to take' as opposed to 'to have' but although it may sound weird in English in Spanish 'tomar' is probably a better verb to use. As for the difference between 'voy a tener' and 'tendre', the 'voy a' part is simply an 'I am going to...', which should be followed by the infinitive. This tense is called the simple future. The other one is the one where you actually conjugate the verb, i.e tendré. This means 'I will...'.

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Reply5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Sarah453977

When we say "I" in Spanish followed by a verb is the verb changed per the gender of the subject? For instance- If I say "I will have a coffee." and I am female, would I say "Yo tendré un café." or should I say "Yo tendrá un café."

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Reply1 year ago