"Det är mannens bok."

Translation:It is the man's book.

January 3, 2015

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Why is it "Det...bok"? I thought it would be "Den ar mannens bok", as bok is an en word?


Det is a formal subject, like it in It rains, so it doesn't refer to the book.

[deactivated user]

    This is not really an adequate explanation, however. The point is the pronouns must agree in gender to their referents, but the referent for 'det' in this case is not 'bok', it is an unknown/unspecified object.


    The duolingo notes(pronouns objective) said den for en-words and det for ett-words as long as they're referring to a word in a separate sentence. But if it's in the current sentence (like he said, it's raining today) then it's det. Hope you could understand that. If not, try taking a look through the notes on the desktop version


    rhey should add notes to the app, i find them helpful


    Hehe, "en word"...


    That's what they're called: en-words for nouns in the common gender, and ett-words for nouns in the neuter gender.


    "This is the man's book" is not ok apparently. But it/that are. Why is that? How would you say 'this' in swedish?


    "Det är mannens bok" = "That is the man's book"

    "Det här är mannens bok" = This is the man's book"

    "här" = "here"

    Note: "It's the man's book" also translates into "Det är mannens bok"

    [deactivated user]

      Det/den här or detta/denna


      Sry might be offtopic here but since I make the mistake every time: wheres the differebce between this and that? Is that = det här and this only "det"? I've never made any difference there...


      this = det här/den här or denna/detta
      that = det där/den där
      We also in many cases accept det to be translated as that, since it tends to get that meaning if you stress the word.


      Could you get away with "that man's book"? How would this be different?

      [deactivated user]

        That man's book would be "den där mannens bok" or "den mannens bok" (the latter is used when you mean "the man previously referred to" and the first for "that man over there").


        Why not ''it is book of the man"?

        [deactivated user]

          "book of the man" is not grammatical English there. You have to say "the book of the man", which would be grammatical but very awkward. "The man's book" is the only reasonably idiomatic translation of this phrase


          How would you say swedish " it is a book of the man" or " it is the book of a man"?


          "it is a book of the man" isn't really proper English. "It's the man's book" is how you would say it, which translates into "Det är mannens bok".

          "it's a book of a man" = "Det är en mans bok"


          I think "It is a book of the man" is ok if you want to emphasize it's only ONE of the many books the man owns like "It is ONE book of the man" or "It is ONE of the man's books".

          How would you say this in Swedish?


          "It is a book of the man" is not ungrammatical, but it's still something no native would ever be likely to say or write.

          The sentence "It is one of the man's books" would be Det är en av mannens böcker in Swedish.


          what about "a man's book" would that be mans bok ?


          "En mans bok"


          So Swedish has a real genitive. But is it really used in colloquial speech or is it similar to the situation in Germany where the genitive has almost completely disappeared in everyday language?


          It is extremely commonplace. We don't really have the "of" construction for possession in Swedish.

          [deactivated user]

            What is the difference between "The Man's" and "The Men's" in Swedish? How would you say it or use it in a sentence?

            • the man's = mannens
            • the men's = männens

            I actually made a recording of the difference a while ago, in another thread: https://forum.duolingo.com/comment/5796934/M%C3%A4nnen


            This kind of genitival usage is comparable to the archaic genitive in German, known as Saxon genitive.


            Here we have: "Es ist des Mannes Buch" (it is the man's book), at the present day it is: " Es ist das Buch des Mannes" (it is the book of the man).


            Though in everyday language nobody in Germany would say "das Buch des Mannes". Genitive has disappeared in colloquial speech. Instead we say "das Buch von dem Mann" or something similar.


            Weird way to speak english. Is it even correct?


            Is there a reason why the recorded voice pronounces the word "ar" differently? Sometimes is sound like 'ear' and at other times it sounds more like 'air.'


            Why is "It is the man his book" not correct? The ' refers to his right?

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