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https://www.duolingo.com/oowowaee

le lo

I forgot the rule - what do I do in the case of "I give it to him"?

Is it "Yo se lo doy a él"?

5 years ago

5 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/ryaton
ryaton
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Hi oowowaee!

If the object you are giving to him is a masculine noun (for example, a book), you use lo. "Yo se LO doy a él (EL libro)"

If the thing is feminine (for example, an apple), you use la. "Yo se LA doy a él (LA manzana)"

But you never ever use "le" in this case ("Yo se le doy a él" doesn't exist) If there is no conext, and you don't know what are you giving to him, just use "lo".

Hope I'm clear, let me know otherwise.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oowowaee

Yes, the confusion was about if you say "Yo le lo doy a él", because it would be "Yo le doy un libro a Martin" (I give a book to Martin).

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ryaton
ryaton
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I see, I misinterpreted your question. But yes, you're correct, it is "Yo se lo doy a él", not "Yo le lo doy a él". Direct/indirect objects in Spanish can be kind of tricky at first, and in your example you have both together in the same sentence. This page explains that particular case better than I could do in case you're interested. http://www.rocketlanguages.com/spanish/resources/direct_indirect_object_pronouns.php

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/oowowaee

thanks for the link, it really clears it up :)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/zwalt00

Your sentence is correct. You could shorten it even further to "Se lo doy" and mean the same thing, but it is common to keep "a él", since se is so ambiguous.

One thing to add to ryaton's comment about "le" -- le and se are indirect object pronouns, i.e. they substitute "to him". Use le if there is no direct object pronoun (lo), but change it to se if there is.

Yo le doy el libro a él Yo se lo doy a él

5 years ago