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  5. "Él se cayó."

"Él se cayó."

Translation:He fell down.

July 25, 2013



I put he fell over and it was marked incorrect. Is the se cayó structure specifically for falling down?


"¿Dondé está a Gandalf? porque yo quiero mucho hablarle." - Celeborn

"Él se cayó" - Gimli


"Se" as copulative verb

Él se cayó. - He fell. Or he fell down.

The Three Main Copular Verb of Spanish:
In Spanish, traditionally the three main copulative verbs are ser, estar and parecer. Ser and estar are usually translated as "to be," while parecer usually means "to seem." Both "be" and "seem" often are copulative in English as well.

A copular verb, also called a linking verb, is a verb that links the subject of a sentence with the predicate

These verbs are copulative verbs only when they performing a linking purpose. All three, especially estar, have other uses as well.


USING 'SE' AS THE EQUIVALENT OF THE PASSIVE VOICE. http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/introduction_se.htm

02 How to use Impersonal Se / Passive Se in Spanish ... Video for what is se in spanish means▶ 6:26 https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=bWU_lvuUXrU


Me too. Surely it means the same thing?


This is kind of confusing with both El and se before cayo. Can someone explain the sentence structure?


El = he the 'se' shows that caer is being used 'reflexively (caerse) and that he "fell himself' rather than dropping a plate or other object


thank you so much. This is the first time this has ever been made clear to me


él (with the accent mark on the vowel) is the pronoun meaning 'he'


Does "caerse" by itself mean "to drop [something]"? Ie. You can never use it to mean "to fall [down]"?


When reflexive verbs (ending in se) are used, the subject (the thing acting out the verb) and the object (the thing being acted upon) are one and the the same.

He bathes himself (bañarse) = Él se baña. Non-reflexive verbs are used is when one thing acts on another. He bathes the child (bañar) = Él baño al niño.

In this example, because he fell by himself, no one or no other thing dropped him or made him fall the reflexive form of cayer is used cayerse.

Even if there is not a full word for word translation into modern English like "He fell himself", that is how it is said in Spanish... Él se cayó.


It can also be "calló", not for falling down, but for shutting up. If they give us no context then it can be either.


Isn't this Latin American Spanish? In which case the "ll" is pronounced /3/ like a soft "g" in English. It's only Spain that uses the /j/ or "y" pronunciation AFAIK.


If e'l means "he" and "cayo' " means "he/she/it" fell and "e'l cayo' means "he fell" where does "se" come into it and what is it trying to say. can you converse without using, le, les, lo, la las, etc. it all seems so unnecessary, answers please, in lay mans terms. Thanks.:-)


caer is the verb to fall and caerse is the reflexive verb to fall over/down. if you said "el cayó" to mean he fell down you'd probably be understood. reflexive verbs can be a pain to learn, but they are important because some reflexives can mean something quite different to their non reflexive counterpart. correr vs correrse for example.


Thank you, have a lingot for your explanation of that :-)


In support of this topic, it occurs to me that in English we have, "He got hurt" and "He hurt himself", with the latter being comparable......contrast, "He hurt...." who?


Is "se" an optional clarification here? That is to say, would "cayó" mean "fall [down]" already by itself? (I know with some verbs, verbs-by-themselves and in-reflexive-expressions mean different things, hence my asking.)


Why it is not "he dropped it"???? I am confused


From what I understand, putting the "se" there makes the verb reflexive, meaning that what he dropped was himself.


Thank you for the information about being reflexive. I then wonder, how would you say, "He dropped it"?


"He dropped it" would be phrased as "Se le cayó."

When you have questions on translations, reverso context is a great resource. http://context.reverso.net/translation/english-spanish/he+dropped+it

But for understanding what is going on in this sentence construction, maybe these links will help: http://spanish.about.com/od/pronouns/a/moreaboutse.htm http://www.ovs0.com/PDF/120342532.pdf

Caerse and many other reflexive verbs, strain our English-thinking brains as they require a change in how we think about concepts. While we intuitively understand how verbs like "wash" can be reflexive, as in, "I washed myself" or "You washed yourself", other verbs that we don't use reflexively are more twisty to us. The conjugation of "he dropped it" "se le cayó" would more literally be translated as "It fell itself from him" which of course barely makes sense in English.


Él se cayó = He fell/fell down, or more literally, he fell himself


Se le cayó = He dropped it, or more literally, it fell itself from him (assuming that somewhere in the rest of the sentence that it is clarified that the direct object and indirect object have been specified, so we know that it is a "he" that is doing the dropping of an "it", rather than say a she or formal you dropping another person.

These sentences however, do not give a clear understanding as to what exactly is being conjugated since both the direct object and indirect object in both are 3rd person. But I think the following sentences might be more helpful to see what is going on in how the verb is conjugated.

Te caíste = You fell/fell down, or more literally, you fell yourself down


Se te cayó = You dropped it/him/her, or more literally, it/he/she dropped/fell itself from you.

I'm not a native speaker but I am pretty sure what I've said above is correct. I hope that helps!


Very important points. This always seemed very strange to me, but you are correct. Another strange expression was, "I forgot it". T hey say, "se me olvidó," literally, "It forgot itself to me." (I'm not a native either, but spent 5 years in Mexico speaking Spanish most of the time.)


Why can't it be "it fell"?


Because the verb is reflexive your translation would be "it fell itself down". Inanimate objects are not inclined to fall down. They may be pushed or thrown but not fall on their own. We know this because of the "se" in the sentence which tells you it is a reflexive verb. Just as was explained to you above.


Why is the se necessary? Like what is the point? Can't it just be "El cayo" (with accents) and we would know what it means?


I'm not a native speaker, but from what I'm reading, it's likely because caer can also translate in some circumstances as "to drop". So "él cayó" could mean either "he fell" or "he dropped it" since Spanish doesn't insist on using the word "it" the way English does. "Él se cayó", the reflexive form, makes it clear that "he" is what the action is happening to.


I wrote "He fell himself" and it marked wrong :(.


Did anyone hear it into 'El seca yo'?

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