"Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan."

Translation:The man speaks Swedish, but not the woman.

January 9, 2015

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For about a second, I thought it meant "The man understands Swedish, but not women". That would have been hilarious!


This was also my thinking.

Would it also be a correct swedish sentence if saying "... men kvinnan inte"? That seams really clearer to me.


Negation first like English "but not the woman".


It is funny, so in English you would invert the last phrase. -> The man understands Swedish, but the woman does not.


In English you'd say "but not the woman" just like in Swedish.


I put "the women doesn't" and it was accepted.


No, this is singular definite "the woman" (kvinnan), not plural definite "the women" (kvinnorna).


You still can't understand the woman, though :)


Kvinnen snakker Norsk :)))


I think the order of words is really strange. I would say: 'but the woman does not'


That is also an accepted translation.


Compare with "but not the woman" instead.


1- Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan = the man speaks Swedish but not the woman (the man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not speak Swedish)

2- Mannen tycker om fläskött, men inte nötkött = the man likes pork but not beef (the man likes pork, but he does not like beef)

3- Mannen älskar pojken, men inte flickan = the man loves the boy but not the girl (the man loves the boy, but he does not love the girl OR the man loves the boy, but the girl does not love the boy)

In 1 and similar sentences, the meaning is clear because it is highly unlikely that "the man speaks/doesn't speak the woman", in 2 it is clear because it is just as highly unlikely that "the beef likes/doesn't like the man"; but in 3 it is quite ambiguous as it is possible for the part negated by "men inte" to either be the object of the verb or the subject.

In English, we can easily eliminate the cunfusion by saying "the man loves the boy, but the girl doesn't", where we make "the girl" the subject of the second clause; and if we say "the man loves the boy, but not the girl" we (usually) mean that "the girl" is the object of the verb in the first clause. Is there a way to make this distinction in Swedish? Does the sentence in question usually imply one of the two meanings?


In my mother tongue, Dutch, this is solved by swapping some words, though I would also like to know whether Swedish does this. "To love" is a bad example in Dutch, but "to punch" works:

"Ik sla de jongen, maar niet het meisje." == I punch the boy, but not the girl.

"Ik sla de jongen, maar het meisje niet." == I punch the boy, but the girl doesn't.

As Dutch and Swedish tend to agree on word order, my intuition suggests "Mannen älskar pojken, men inte flickan." and "Mannen älskar pojken, men flickan inte.", respectively ... Then again, I'm not Swedish, and this could be wrong (certainly because the thread concerns a Duolingo translation which disagrees with this interpretation, since "kvinnan" is the subject even though it comes after "inte").


Do the Swedes have an equivalent to the Russian не..., а... or the Finnish ei..., vaan...?

EDIT: just found on Wiktionary, it's utan

Huset är inte rött utan blått.

The house is not red but blue.


The English translation seems a bit clunky...kind of feels like youre saying the man "doesnt speak the woman" which makes no sense. "..but the woman doesnt." would make a lot more sense.


This would mean that the man does not speak "the woman"?


I was wondering if "The man speaks Swedish, but the woman doesn't/does not." is also acceptable here.

Would that be written differently? Just curious.



That is also an accepted translation as stated above, since inte is used to negate the verb (lagar mat in this case) while inget/n is used to negate nouns.

[deactivated user]

    How would you say opposite: "The man does not speaks swedish, but the woman does."?


    Mannen talar inte svenska, men det gör kvinnan.


    My answer was considered wrong because I wrote "the woman does not." The suggested answer was "the LADY does not."


    Why cant i say 'but the woman doesnt' ? Is it incorrect or just not an option?


    As of Novemeber 2018, Duolingo accepts The man speaks Swedish, but the woman doesn't


    Does this sentence mean the man doesn't speak Woman (as if that is a seperate language) or doesn't the woman speak Swedish?


    That's pretty obvious from context.


    What's this comment supposed to mean? Does the man not speak "the woman", or does he not speak "to the woman"?


    Hmm, 'but the woman does not' which I think is the correct translation, is not accepted. Strange.


    Can you also say "..., but the woman doesn't"?


    That is not a correct English sentence


    Mannen talar svenska. Mannen talar inte engelska. If we combined these two sentences, we find, "Mannen talar svenska, men inte engelska." But same way if we divide this sentence, "Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan", we get "Mannen talar svenska" and "Mannen talar inte kvinnan". So there is a problem with last sentence. How to solve this, any idea? Please somebody help me.


    Mannen talar svenska men han talar inte engelska. (Mannen talar svenska men inte engelska.) Mannen talar svenska men kvinnan talar inte svenska. Does this help you to understand how it goes? In fact, to me "Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan" does not even sound correct, it's not a properly constructed sentence. I can see why you would consider it a problem. In English, you would say: The man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not (or doesn't). Probably best to re-write to make it clearer, like: "Mannen talar svenska, men kvinnan daremot inte (eller gor det inte). Stay away from "men inte kvinnan" altogether- it SUCKS!! If there are two different subjects, it simply doesn't work to combine or it won't make any sense. You just can't test it that way. I'll think about it some more and get back to you. This is fascinating, actually. Hopefully, a teacher might step in to give you a clearer vision.


    What's the difference between "men" and "utan" ?


    "Utan" means "But rather"

    For example "Jag talar inte engelska, utan svenska" - "I don't speak English, but (rather) Swedish"


    And I thought there was a language named 'the woman' and the man did not speak it.


    That's actually hilarious!! See my input above on this issue. The sentence is improperly constructed and therefore easily misunderstood by someone trying to learn the language. And it doesn't translate well into English either. Simply doesn't make sense and you have to re-write the sentence to make it clear as to "what's up" with respect to those two, i.e. whether the man speaks Swedish whereas the woman does not (speak Swedish). At this point, I couldn't care less... Good night!


    What's the difference between utan and men? Thanks


    Even the answer in the app shows the matching answer


    Is the word order of the secound part of the sentence so, because it can't "stand alone"?


    I was so sure I heard the word "Klingon" at the end. They do teach Klingon here - so I thought they were being funny! The man speaks Swedish but not Klingon. !!!


    Is this even proper English?


    Is this even proper English


    Shouldn't it be: 'The man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not.'


    Why is "The man speaks Swedish but the woman not" not accepted?


    It would be correct to say, "The man speaks Swedish but not the woman" or "The man speaks Swedish but the woman does not". Same in Swedish: Mannen talar svenska men inte kvinnan. Mannen talar svenska men kvinnan gor det inte.


    Why is but the woman not. Wrong??


    "The man speaks Swedish but the woman don't"


    The man speaks Swedish but the woman doesn't (or does not). Plural would be: The men speak Swedish but the women don't (or do not). Incidentally, this is getting old - like a broken record. Time to move on...


    No, this is not easy, not even for a native! Think of it as: Mannen talar svenska men kvinnan gor det inte (does not or doesn't)! For att undvika missforstand. Eller: Mannen talar svenska men kvinnan ingenting annat an svenska. YET, I believe that people will continue to say "men inte kvinnan" - vare sig det ar fel eller ej!! "Han talar svenska men inte hon". Nog minns val jag att folk sa' det pa forntiden dar jag vaxte upp! Nar nastan inga andra an svenskar talade svenska och livet var sa mycket lattare att leva...


    Is this a correct english sentence? I would say: the man speaks swedisch, but the woman does not. Just curious :)


    Yes, it's correct. "The man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not (or doesn't)."


    Talar vs pratar, different or can they be switched around and still make sense?


    They could be switched and still make sense. However, "att tala" has always sounded more appropriate to me, as has the Spanish "hablar" rather than "platicar" or much worse "charlar" (a "charleton"!) which both means "chat", more or less ("chatterbox"?). I grew up in Sweden but no longer speak Swedish very often. But, when I do, I definitely use "tala" rather than "prata" which, to me, sounds too familiar. AND, I don't even like the "du" rather than "Ni". In the olden days Mr. or Mrs. (Herr eller Fru) was the norm and I much prefer being addressed as "Senora" like in Mexico where formality is still the key. It provides a safer and more comfortable distance as you age... Thus, you can't go wrong with "att tala svenska"!


    This seems like a weird sentence


    I type "The man speaks Swedish, but the woman not" is marked as mistake. This should be corrected.


    I dont see what is wrong with: "the man speaks swedish and the woman not". I try to learn swedish here,not subtile english grammar.


    because ‘men’ means ‘but’ not ‘and’


    Can 'utan' be used here instead of 'men'?? As the 'but rather' rule applies to this sentence...


    Can 'utan' be used here instead of 'men'?? As the "but rather" rule applies to this sentence...


    I type "The man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not" and it gives me a wrong. Please correct that

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