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"Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan."

Translation:The man speaks Swedish, but not the woman.

January 9, 2015



For about a second, I thought it meant "The man understands Swedish, but not women". That would have been hilarious!


This was also my thinking.

Would it also be a correct swedish sentence if saying "... men kvinnan inte"? That seams really clearer to me.


Negation first like English "but not the woman".


It is funny, so in English you would invert the last phrase. -> The man understands Swedish, but the woman does not.


In English you'd say "but not the woman" just like in Swedish.


I put "the women doesn't" and it was accepted.


No, this is singular definite "the woman" (kvinnan), not plural definite "the women" (kvinnorna).


You still can't understand the woman, though :)


Kvinnen snakker Norsk :)))


I think the order of words is really strange. I would say: 'but the woman does not'


That is also an accepted translation.


Compare with "but not the woman" instead.


1- Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan = the man speaks Swedish but not the woman (the man speaks Swedish, but the woman does not speak Swedish)

2- Mannen tycker om fläskött, men inte nötkött = the man likes pork but not beef (the man likes pork, but he does not like beef)

3- Mannen älskar pojken, men inte flickan = the man loves the boy but not the girl (the man loves the boy, but he does not love the girl OR the man loves the boy, but the girl does not love the boy)

In 1 and similar sentences, the meaning is clear because it is highly unlikely that "the man speaks/doesn't speak the woman", in 2 it is clear because it is just as highly unlikely that "the beef likes/doesn't like the man"; but in 3 it is quite ambiguous as it is possible for the part negated by "men inte" to either be the object of the verb or the subject.

In English, we can easily eliminate the cunfusion by saying "the man loves the boy, but the girl doesn't", where we make "the girl" the subject of the second clause; and if we say "the man loves the boy, but not the girl" we (usually) mean that "the girl" is the object of the verb in the first clause. Is there a way to make this distinction in Swedish? Does the sentence in question usually imply one of the two meanings?


In my mother tongue, Dutch, this is solved by swapping some words, though I would also like to know whether Swedish does this. "To love" is a bad example in Dutch, but "to punch" works:

"Ik sla de jongen, maar niet het meisje." == I punch the boy, but not the girl.

"Ik sla de jongen, maar het meisje niet." == I punch the boy, but the girl doesn't.

As Dutch and Swedish tend to agree on word order, my intuition suggests "Mannen älskar pojken, men inte flickan." and "Mannen älskar pojken, men flickan inte.", respectively ... Then again, I'm not Swedish, and this could be wrong (certainly because the thread concerns a Duolingo translation which disagrees with this interpretation, since "kvinnan" is the subject even though it comes after "inte").


Do the Swedes have an equivalent to the Russian не..., а... or the Finnish ei..., vaan...?

EDIT: just found on Wiktionary, it's utan

Huset är inte rött utan blått.

The house is not red but blue.


The English translation seems a bit clunky...kind of feels like youre saying the man "doesnt speak the woman" which makes no sense. "..but the woman doesnt." would make a lot more sense.


This would mean that the man does not speak "the woman"?


I was wondering if "The man speaks Swedish, but the woman doesn't/does not." is also acceptable here.

Would that be written differently? Just curious.



That is also an accepted translation as stated above, since inte is used to negate the verb (lagar mat in this case) while inget/n is used to negate nouns.

[deactivated user]

    How would you say opposite: "The man does not speaks swedish, but the woman does."?


    Mannen talar inte svenska, men det gör kvinnan.


    My answer was considered wrong because I wrote "the woman does not." The suggested answer was "the LADY does not."


    Why cant i say 'but the woman doesnt' ? Is it incorrect or just not an option?


    As of Novemeber 2018, Duolingo accepts The man speaks Swedish, but the woman doesn't


    Does this sentence mean the man doesn't speak Woman (as if that is a seperate language) or doesn't the woman speak Swedish?


    That's pretty obvious from context.


    What's this comment supposed to mean? Does the man not speak "the woman", or does he not speak "to the woman"?


    Hmm, 'but the woman does not' which I think is the correct translation, is not accepted. Strange.


    Can you also say "..., but the woman doesn't"?


    That is not a correct English sentence


    Mannen talar svenska. Mannen talar inte engelska. If we combined these two sentences, we find, "Mannen talar svenska, men inte engelska." But same way if we divide this sentence, "Mannen talar svenska, men inte kvinnan", we get "Mannen talar svenska" and "Mannen talar inte kvinnan". So there is a problem with last sentence. How to solve this, any idea? Please somebody help me.


    What's the difference between "men" and "utan" ?


    "Utan" means "But rather"

    For example "Jag talar inte engelska, utan svenska" - "I don't speak English, but (rather) Swedish"


    And I thought there was a language named 'the woman' and the man did not speak it.


    What's the difference between utan and men? Thanks


    Even the answer in the app shows the matching answer

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