"They ask the woman."
Translation:Ellos le preguntan a la mujer.
How can both "La preguntan" AND "Le preguntan" both be correct? I had the multiple choice and I only picked the one with "la" thinking that it referred to the woman... but I guess I'm overlooking something?
That's what I thought as well because they are not referring to themselves just to the woman but referring back to my spanish textbook: Direct Objects answer Who/Whom/What (Vi a Laurie = I saw Laurie y La vi = I saw her) DO are me, te, lo/la, nos, los/las. Indirect Objects answer for/to whom and generally introduced by "a" before a name. This problem we just did is an example. IO are me, te, le, nos, les. I still get tripped up but I'm glad I reviewed and hopefully cleared up our confusion.
I just realized that the 'a' in front of Laurie maybe confusing because both DO and IO require an 'a' in front of a name. The difference is that with IO you are doing an action TO someone or something. Ellos le preguntan a la mujer (they asked her) compared to Vi a Laurie/La vi (I saw her). Does that make sense?
It says the answer is Ellos le preguntan a la mujer (or drop ellos). My accepted answer was 'Ellos preguntan a la mujer' . I now think my answer is wrong but is it? Le is indirect object pronoun for mujer. So I think that is mandatory. If you use "ellos le preguntan a la mujer" shouldn't that be 'a ellos'.
Lifted from a Q&A site on Spanish: The following verbs use indirect object pronouns: contestar, decir, preguntar, hablar
You don't 'speak' someone, you speak 'to someone' The le is clarified by 'a la mujer" and I think you may omit the 'le' if 'a la mujer' is used, since this is not a 'gustar' type verb, and the subject remains 'ellos' with no 'a' I think your answer is a correct option -- I think ;)
Your answer makes sense. To whom did they ask which makes mujer the indirect object. I am slowly getting that 'a la' are required (still challenges me) I see what you mean about the specified verbs. It means an indirect object will be involved i.e. To whom.
I did find this reference... If there is an indirect object, a indirect object pronoun must be placed before the conjugated verb. Les compré los regalos de navidad para mis padres.
I bought Christmas presents for my parents.
(For whom are the presents? The presents are for my parents.)
But why was my answer accepted. Is it possibly a Spain vs Latin America issue? Not many times people ask why it was accepted but I can only learn if I really understand. I don't right now.
I believe pider is more like to order or ask for like one would in a restaurant and preguntar is simply to ask a question.
I think pedir is used for making a requests (asking for something) and preguntar is used for asking questions in general, but pedir should be accepted since we don't know what was asked.
Why is it not "ellos la preguntan a la mujer" I thought the feminine object pronoun would be required here.
For the indirect object (mujer) which needs the "personal a". Notice the personal a doesn't get translated. If it were a preposition it would have been translated. Look over rspreng & Mavry's responses keeping in mind that when they mention"a ella" that to is for clarification only. What Mavry outlined is well worth reading twice.