"She never answered."
Translation:Ella nunca respondió.
According to http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/111051/what-is-the-difference-between-jamas-and-nunca their meanings are identical, however, "jamas" has more of a radical meaning, such as "never, ever, ever." While "nunca" has a kinda "basic" never definition.
"Nunca" can be used in a combination with "jamás" -> "nunca jamás"
I don't get it , The idea here of whether the action was completed in the past or not is vague so its cleary an Imperfect tense (also kinda habitual nature of action) so why did they use preterite tense ? It should have been , " Ella nunca respondia " if I am not wrong
Sin un contexto, ambas pueden ser correctas. Por ejemplo: "Durante un año, le mandé una carta todas las semanas, pero nunca respondió a ninguna". "Solía mandarle una carta cada semana, pero nunca respondía a ninguna".
Nunca ella contestó - this was wrong, I guess the pronoun must come prior to nunca
No. The adverb "nunca" must come before the verb. See this article:
Seems you have to use, "no" ... verb ... "nunca". Not just nunca. Is it the same with jamás?
Because, as far as I know, "respuestio" doesn't exist in Spanish. Take a look at the conjugation of "responder":
So what's the difference between "contesto" and "respondio"? I heard it commonly used in Central America.