"Lo llamaré más tarde."
Translation:I will call him later.
I thought "lo" was only for "it", not also him. Wow good thing for me to finally figure out.
I put 'I will call him much later', and the 'much' was counted wrong. ?? Would you ever use 'Lo llamaré tarde.' ? Or does 'más tarde' always mean just 'later'?
"Tarde" is "late".
"Más tarde" is "later".
"Último" or "más reciente" is "latest".
rogercchristie: Thanks. I couldn't figure out where the mas (accent over the a) came from. So "later" is a two word combo - mas tarde. Another entry for my very big notebook.
Incidentally Gael, I don't know what computer you use, but I get an acute accent using alt-e before the letter, so alt-e e gives me é, alt-e a gives me á, etc. Hope this helps.
PS I had to edit this. I meant acute not grave (too much Italian recently!). I hope the first version doesn't confuse too much.
For Wales 46 - There are dozens of keyboards configured to various languages and scripts across the globe. It can be done with an actual keyboard, or just with software. For instance, I have of course my Anglo keyboard, and I can switch between English, Spanish and German layouts. It's just a matter of remembering what keys have changed.
Nice to know about the PC way to get an accent. Macs use option-e. Also, option-n gives you ˜ as in ñ, option-u gives you ¨as in ü, option-! gives you ¡, and option-shift-? gives you ¿. These commands probably work using the alt key. I'm not sure, but you may also have to find the command to use the international keyboard on the Mac.
My Mac has broken down and I am now back on Windows. I can get an acute accent using AltGr+[vowel] - so áéíóú - but I have to use Character Map for all other accented letters (or else Copy-Paste from elsewhere).
Of course I can change to a different keyboard - but these only show up on the virtual keyboard, not on the real one!
I wonder how a Spanish keyboard works? How do they apply accents over letters? If it is a two or three key process then Spanish touch typist speeds must be much slower than British. Productivity in foreign typing pools must be lower than in British ones.
Thanks, Jeannine! It would seem that 'más' is often used 'invisibly' in this manner. I'll get used to it eventually. :-D
Don't consider me an expert. Like i said, i looked it up cuz it was bothering, me, too. Lol.
Dec 17, 2014 JeannineRN Aha! I found it! http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/inequal.htm
The 'más' is part of the way Spanish makes comparisons. So here, where English uses 'later', Spanish uses 'más + tarde'. AND, just as English does, Spanish often leaves off the implied end of the sentence: later (than something) = más tarde (que algo).
Thanks for inspiring me to clear that up in my mind! No semi-invisible 'más' needed. :=D
No. But don't take my word for it. Google "I am going to tense" and look it up yourself like I did. There's lots of good advice (and plenty more bad advice like yours). It's a fascinating story.
Why wouldn't HIM be: "Le llamare mas tarde"? I thought le/la = he/she and "lo" was "it"
le is the indirect object, masculine, feminine and neuter. So, Le gusta el tomate. The tomato is pleasing to him. or the tomato is pleasing to her. Lo is masculine and neuter direct object, since Spanish defaults to the masculine form when unknown, la feminine. In this sentence, you have a direct object, since he (him) receives the action (the call)
Well, not so much the reflexive part. That's a whole nother thing. It's more the direct versus indirect object here. In English - I call - I is subject, call is verb. Who do I call? Tom. direct object. So, I call Tom, I call him. . It works the same way in Spanish, except the direct object goes in front of the verb (usually). yo llamaré yo= subject, llamaré, verb. Who do I call? Juan. Yo llamare a Juan ( mustn't forget the personal a here). But, you can substitute lo for Juan, and then it comes before the verb. Yo lo llamaré.
Okay, so when do you use "le" instead of "lo" or "la"? If I call it my favorite, "it" would be "le", right? Por ejemplo:
"Yo le llamo mi favorita" ... but you wouldn't use "le" for him or her if they're the objects? You would then only use "lo" or "la"? I'm not sure I'm making sense, but I'm just trying to figure out the difference between "le" and "lo" as object... Thanks again for your help!
In your example, it would be yo lo llamo mi favorito, or Yo la llama mi favorita.
It might be easier with a different verb, give. In English - He gives the book to John. He is the subject, the book is the direct object, the thing that is being given. to John (which could be him) is the indirect object or the thing or person that gets the thing being acted on. So, He gives it to him, using all pronouns.
In Spanish, ël le da el libro a Juan. Spanish prefers/requires the use of the indirect object pronoun, even if an indirect object noun is indicated. , so word for word this becomes he to him gives the book to Juan. All pronouns, Él se lo da, because Spanish doesn't like the combination le lo, le changes to se. Yes, it's really confusing. Yes, you'll figure it out eventually. For right now, and speaking only about indirect and direct object pronouns, lo/la/las/los are direct, le/se are indirect.
Call is kind of a special case, because it doesn't usually take an indirect object.
Reply to kigregonis: Lingot to you. I have been wondering so long how to use se as a pronoun instead of just as a reflexive. Thank you for a clear explanation. Challenge to anyone: An example of a sentence that uses "se" as a pronoun and is also reflexive. What I'm getting at, is this possible, and if not, then why not?
The pronouns él, ella, usted, ustedes, vosotro, vosotros/vosotras, and ellos/ellas are all used as both subjects and objects of prepositions, but my question is this: If lo = him/you/it, la = her, and las/los = them when all of these pronouns are indirect objects, then are these same pronouns used ONLY as indirect object pronouns or do they have other functions?
Why is, "I will call it later" incorrect? Frank: Here is the number Bob. Bob: I will call it later.
I think it's because duolingo is forcing you to learn this important point about lo being used for him instead of le. Dont worry about getting told you got it wrong, concentrate on just learning.
Okay, I know there are different pronunciations of ll in native speakers but from what I've heard, I thought that this hard j sound is the least common. Like I've heard "ya, sha" and soft j in "ja" but this pronunciation on DL sounds like a hard j. Could someone explain how common hard j is as opposed to these other sounds for ll?
It's a dialectical thing. I was trying to use my American accented Northern Mexican pronunciation in Costa Rica on the word gallo, used the soft y shading to a soft zh, but was definitively corrected to pronouncing it Gajo as in Ga Joe. My ESL students here all use the softer sound that is closer to a y. How you hear it may also differ a little depending on the surrounding sounds
It seems to me to be a 50/50 split. It does depend on where the person is from, but I wouldn't say it's uncommon.
I pronounce it like the Welsh do in Wales. Is that wrong? [ :-) ]
That would be "Lo llamaré mucho más tarde." Tarde = late; más tarde = later; Jan 28, 2015
Y "mucho más tarde" = "latest." In English, the meaning of "late" is "not to be on time." The meaning of "later" is "at some time in the future compared to a set time." The meaning of "latest" is as rogercchristie pointed out "most recent" (as in "the last ... that happened") or is "the very last of a series of events."
For example: Of all the late-comers, he was the latest. He was fifteen minutes late and only got here thirty seconds ago. His brother was only a minute late, and his sister came fifteen minutes later.
I have always assumed that this understanding of how time works is similar in Spanish. I'd be interested to learn if there are any subtleties in Spanish that I am missing.