"Whose dog is it?"
Translation:Vems hund är det?
Det does not refer to the dog here, it’s just a generic subject because the sentence needs a subject. It’s a dummy pronoun much like ”it” in ”it is raining” which does not refer to the actual ”rain”.
Why is it correct to pretty much just translate each word separately? Doesn't the verb need to go in the second position, or is "är" not the verb? Also, why is it "hunden," definite, when translated as "Vems är hunden"?
For questions, the rule is that the verb goes before the subject. If there's a question word or a phrase that functions the same way, that goes first. In this cases vems hund functions the same way as a question word would (compare: Who is it? Vem är det?).
After possessives, we use the indefinite, just like you do in English: 'his dog' hans hund (not "his the dog"), and vems works the same way – 'whose dog' (not "whose the dog") is vems hund. In vems är hunden, the dog is not defined (or 'owned') by vems (you can tell because there's a verb between them) so again it works like in English – you'd say 'whose is the dog' too.
I keep hearing a ''m'' sound between ''hund'' and ''är det'', is it supposed to be that way? If so, then why?
I'm having a bit of a hard time to pick out if it's in there, as the speakers at work are really bad, but it shouldn't be there.
vilken means 'which' so it's the wrong word. That would be like saying 'Which is dog?' in English.