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  5. "Ella se cayó."

"Ella se cayó."

Translation:She fell down.

July 28, 2013



I don't understand why we have to add 'se' on this sentence? Anyone want to explain me about this? Gracias...


We probably don't necessarily.

http://spanish.about.com/od/verbs/a/caer-vs-caerse.htm mentions: In many sentences they [caer and caerse] mean much the same thing and can even be translated the same way. But the reflexive form of some verbs, including caer, can be (but isn't always) used to suggest that an action was unexpected or accidental rather than deliberate.


As in a thing that happened to the subject; was put upon rather than undertaken.t


I thought reflexive verbs were for when one does something to oneself like, to brush one's own teeth?


Right. So in this case, it might be that she "fell down herself" rather than someone pushing or tripping her. To indicate that reflexive accident, the reflexive pronoun may have been used. Can someone confirm?


Caer means to drop, and se is reflexive.

Caerse means to fall down, but think of it this way:

Ella se cayó. She dropped herself. Or in other words, she fell. That's how I remember it.


I LOVE your answer!

We learners must remember that languages do not have one to one correlations. In theory, the way to express an idea in one language may take one word and the same idea in another might take ten.

I saw the example of Dejar caer meaning to fumble. That is to leave to drop... To let drop Which is very descriptive of fumbling really LOL!!!!


Is there a difference between this and "She fell over"?


apparently so. In the north of England we say 'she fell over' other places say 'fell down'. They should really except both.


Accept. They should really 'accept' both, not except.


I think a majority of England say 'fell over' so yes, they should probably accept both 'fell over' and 'fell down'


If we wanted to place blame on someone else for her falling we wouldn't use the reflexive pronoun, correct?


My guess is that you restructure the sentence and use another verb, and a new subject: Él la hizo caer = he made her fall down. I think. ;)


Another sentence in here is 'El pájaro cayó', so I guess that means that omitting the 'se' is fine.... including it just indicates it was her own fault? I don't know, I'm guessing here.


The se indicates it was either nobody's fault or it's own fault.


I still don't understand why 'ella se cayó' can't mean 'she fell over'? Is it that she has to fall down some incline (eg stairs) rather than tripping on a branch and falling over? I can imagine there might be a difference so i don't want to flag it yet, but i for my part would very very rarely say 'she fell down' in English unless it was followed by e.g. the stairs, the escalator, Mt Everest etc... it has also left me confused as to whether i could use this to say e.g. 'she fell off/from the roof' - would that be 'ella se cayó el techo'?


ella se cayó means the same as ella cayó, only the first one is more common. In english you can say "she fell" the same way as "she fell down", can't you? But which one do you use the most? the particle 'se' makes it more clear that she is the one who fell. If you want to express that she fell from somewhere, e.g. Mt. Everest (which is rather uncommon), you would say "Ella se cayó de el/del Monte Everest". No one say "ella cayó de (some place)"


De el is bad grammz. Grammz-grammar. Del is better


To many Americans "she fell down" doesn't mean that she fell down off something, like the stairs. It's just that she fell to the ground (or floor or bed or whatever). The floor, etc., is lower, so she fell "down". So this must be American oriented translation. I don't know whether Spanish has another term for fell over. Perhaps this could be translated simply "she fell." I don't know.


Report it. She fell, she fell down, and she fell over all mean the same thing. Regional differences should be accepted.


Why not "She dropped it"?


"To drop", in Spanish, is "dejar caer", literally "to let fall". So, "She dropped it" would be "Ella lo dejó caer".


because she is the one who fell down


Where does this phrase include "down"? I took "se" to mean "it" and from the listed suggestions got "She hanged it". It was marked wrong! Google translate gives "Ella se cayo" as "She fell".


she fell literally means the same as she fell down/over, but the second one is my common when you say, for example, that someone tripped. It works the same way as "ella cayó" and "ella se cayó"


She fell is accepted. Down is optional. In this case, the "se" is referring to herself. It's reflexive.

Hang isn't really the right word for caerse. http://www.wordreference.com/es/translation.asp?tranword=hang


So if I wanted to say "I fell down" or "you fell down" would that be "me cayó" and "te cayó"?


I fell down is "yo me caí"; You fell down is "tu te caíste", "usted se cayó" "vosotros os caísteis" and "ustedes se cayeron".


I got the audio exercise "type what you hear", and wrote "Ella se calló" which I believe is correct depending on pronounciation (yeísmo). Any Spanish native to confirm this?


If it's an audio exercise, that would be a correct answer. But then it would mean, "She quieted".


Thanks for the confirmation! Yes it was the audio exercise only, and I'm aware it means a different thing... but I had no idea what the sentence was supposed to mean in a "type what you hear" exercise. :)


Does anyone else notice that we get a lot of practice with the verb "to fall?"


If there is no context you can understand two translations. The other one is "ella se calló" or "she stopped talking"


It sounds exactly the same "ella se calló" (she got silent), and "ella se cayó" (she fell down), being the first verb "callarse" and the second one "caerse".


Shut up, get back up, and walk away


Once again. People are falling. WATCH WHERE YOU ARE GOING!!!! DUH!!!!


I have not seen this verb in the present tense yet. Odd to introduce a verb in preterite first????

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