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  5. "They have their own interpre…

"They have their own interpreters."

Translation:De har sina egna tolkar.

January 16, 2015



Why is "deras" instead of "sina" wrong in this case?


Same question I have : what is the difference between "deras" and "sina" ?


indeed, why is deras wrong here? I thought sina is more like themselves...


If I remember well, deras vs sina follows the same logic than hennes vs sina : is the person owning the object is already cited in the sentence, it is ok to use sina. Else, you have to use hennes / deras. Since "hennes" is right in any case, I expected "deras" to be right also, and I don't understand why it is not


Isn't "sina" and "sina egna" precisely equivalent here? I mean, "sina" already implies "ownness", right?


Sina already implies ownness, but just saying sina is still like saying ”they have their interpreters” in English. We also add the egna (own) just like English does.


I don't know how to trill my Rs , will this become a problem?


Probably not. Try the best you can, and if not just go with the R of your native language. People will understand you regardless.


You'll pick it up eventually, but it isn't a big deal if you can't do it as people will understand what you're saying anyway

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