Translation:Your wife will have taken all your dreams from you.
I have a question, I would usually say "skulle vara" as a translation for "would be". However, I once heard "vore" instead. I immediately understood the meaning, but I wonder if this type of construction is common or not, as it does not show on any website when conjugating "vara", but it does show up if I search for the word "vore" itself.
Haha thanks. Sounds like you're pretty busy trying to get Tree 2.0 done. It's good that it's a lot like English, because I'll be able to pick it up - but a lot of the time I actually don't know the theory of English grammar because I was never taught it - we all just picked up how to use it.
To me, it would feel a very different English sentence without that final "from me". If she takes my dreams from me, it is clear that I am totally bereft, I am left with nothing. "She took all my dreams" is far less definite and might imply that she had made the dreams her own too. So I would say it is needed.