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  5. "Él pierde su dinero."

"Él pierde su dinero."

Translation:He loses his money.

July 30, 2013



Bad time for a native English speaker to confuse looses and loses :-\


I wrote "He loses his dinner." Clearly not right.


I almost did that myself. It is a common brain freeze for me, although I certainly know better. I actually came in here to ask if anyone knows how translatable that it. I assume it would be understood in context, but would it sound natural. He lost his lunch is pretty much an English euphomism for vomiting, no matter what time of day, but the actual meal also works in English. Is it an expression used in Spanish?


And that is why we dont trust others with our money


Este hombre esta en Las Vegas.

  • 1057

I will admit, I do not understand how any native English speaker could ever confuse "lose" and "loose". And yet it is quite common.


Wait twenty or thirty years. I had always prided myself on my use of words and never confusing homonyms or word forms. But recently when I do a lot of writing I do find I mix up homonyms sometimes. I don't think the wrong one, I just write the wrong one and don't notice it until I proofread. It's definitely a long way from Alzheimers, but I definitely "space out" differently as I age.


Answer He loses its money was given. Crazy.


How would you say "He loses their money?" Thanks.


It's the same. "su dinero" can be "his money", "her money", "their money" or "your [ustedes] money"


Apparently if you want to specify i've heard it can be "èl piedra su dinero de ella/ellos/ellas". Can someone confirm that?


I think you're right. Here are some examples from an authoritative site:

<pre>María busca a la hermana de él. María looks for his sister. El hombre busca las llaves de ella. The man looks for her keys. María busca el cuaderno de Juan. María looks for Juan's notebook. El hombre busca las llaves de Samanta. The man looks for Samanta's keys. </pre>

(from: http://www.studyspanish.com/lessons/possadj.htm)


Can we say, "Él pierde su propio dinero." to specify that he lost his own money?


Sure. :)
Not as a translation for the given sentence, though.


"Piedra" is a rock


Yes. I suggest that "èl piedra su dinero" might be "he rocks his money." :-)


Él pierde "el" dinero de ello(a,os,as)... no longer "su", that is tautology.


First heard verde but it made no sense and just having recently seen pierde, the pieces of the puzzle fit. Success!


he loses your money was an acceptable answer?


Sí, porque "su" puede significar "his/her/your (formal)". Como inglés es amiguo. ¡Gracias por la pregunta mi amigo!


It shouldn't have been....


How would you say " He lost his money " ?


Él perdió su dinero. = He lost his money.

This is perder conjugated in all tenses and moods. The first row is the indicativo, and within that row is the pretérito. The pretérito is a good place to start when you first begin learning the past tense.

some details about the use of the preterite (pretérito), and how to conjugate verbs into the preterite.


Nice profile pic. ;)


Él perdió su dinero


I wish there were more info on the verb "to lose"


Would "Él se pierde su dinero" be correct too?


'Perderse' means 'to get lost' such as "I got lost in the woods."

  • 1357

He is losing his money. - That should be marked correct as well, right?


That really sounds like a case for the Spanish progressive tense. "Él está perdiendo su dinero." It's happening right now.

  • 1357

Thank you. It appears that in this Spanish course- much more so than in the German, French or Hungarian courses- the program is much stricter in this regard of not always accepting ´he loses´ and ´he is losing´ as interchangeable. I am not sure that the difference is really that this facet of Spanish is fundamentally different in its prevalent form versus the way the program has been programmed. Is there a native Spanish speaker who can weigh in? In any case, here in this course I will use the ¨he loses¨phrasing unless specifically asked for the ¨he is losing¨ version. Thank you again!


Magyar nyelv legjobb nyelv! :D

The issue here is that Spanish, unlike German, French, Hungarian, and most other languages, has dedicated progressive tenses, just like English, built with a form of estar and a present participle: "is losing" - "está perdiendo"

The Spanish progressive tenses have slightly different applications than the English progressives, namely that in Spanish it means that he is (was/will be) losing it at that very moment - it's in progress. In English you also use the progressive tense for one-time actions while using simple tenses for habitual actions: "He is losing his money (currently/once)" vs. "He loses his money (on a daily basis)." Spanish has other ways to mark that difference.

So, progressive tenses are not congruent between the languages and you can translate this sentence as either "He loses his money" or "He is losing his money." But for the purposes of this course, simple-tense sentences in Spanish should be translated with simple tenses in English where possible. Else it would the course really messy and it would be hard to teach what the Spanish progressive actually does. :)


Good comment. Have a lingot.

  • 1357

Fantastic explanation! Thank you once again. It is very, very helpful.


Yes, that can be OK. One can translate the Spanish present by using the English present progressive. See these references. http://spanish.about.com/odhttp://elblogdelingles.blogspot.mx/2014/12/la-equivalencia-de-los-tiempos-verbales.html/verbtenses/a/verbtenses.htm
https://www.duolingo.com/skill/en/Verbs%3A-Gerund/practice https://www.thoughtco.com/introduction-to-the-indicative-present-tense-3079925

However, in addition, RyagonIV is corrrect. For DL, best to translate Spanish present as an English present.


I can't think of when an English speaker would say this instead of "he is losing his money" for a present tense translation. I am aware there is another way in Spanish of saying "is losing" but that shouldn't make us to use a stilted English translation.


An English speaker would say "he loses his money" as part of a sentence, using the simple present to represent a habitual action. He loses his money whenever he has any. He loses his money every time he bets on the horses.


My damn renter - I should say my damn ex-renter - would continually lose my rent money at the casino!


Well it's good that he's an ex renter. There are many reasons to be patient with someone's financial situation even if it negatively impacts yours, but gambling money away is not one. Even if there is an addiction, looking the other way is just enabling.


Yes, I agree here. Duo used to be stricter about not accepting the progressive in languages that have their own, even when it made the English sentence quite strange. They now accept i more often. But it is a valid teaching convention, especially considering the limits of Duo's platform, to reserve progressive translations for the Spanish progressive tenses despite the fact Spanish uses the progressive on a much more limited basis. The only way they can teach the progressive is to translate it as the progressive but that doesn't mean much when all the present sentences can be in the progressive as well. There is some room for play here, but a sentence like this is abou as likely to be said in the present as the progressive.


SOMEONE SAVE ME FROM MY INCAPABILITY OF LEARNING SPANISH!! Becuase I really want to learn it, but the words just won't stick with me. :\


He must gamble badly.


Come on, Uncle Billy where did you put the money?


Duo has translated "perder tiempo" as wasting time. Can it also mean to waste money, not just to lose it?


It can, under certain circumstances. Perder covers both meanings of "to lose" (def. 1) and "to waste" (def. 2).

How to make a difference? If you don't want to use a different verb, like desperdiciar, derrochar (both "to waste"), gastar (to spend), or malgastar (to "bad-spend") to make it clear that you're actively spending money on sub-par things, you have the option to say what you're wasting the money on:

  • No quiero perder más dinero en ese curso. - I do not want to waste any more money on this course. ≈ I do not want to lose any more money in this course.

But it's the safer bet to just use a different verb here. :)


Since it is not clarified how "su" is meant (your, her, or his)a - all of these translations should be counted as correct - right? or is there supposed to be an assumption made that one should translate the sentence as "he" because él is the subject??


They generally do allow allow all options as the possibility does exist that the possessive pronoun references another person mentioned in a previous sentence. But the norm is certainly that the pronoun matches the subject. There have been a couple of issues in the past where some was shown a correct answer where the translation of su didn't match the subject. Some people have more difficulty than others imagining different contexts where that would be true. And it is certainly something a question writer might forget to include. If I ran that department at duo I would have everyone have a checklist to review common reasons for multiple translations like this and all the "you" s. I would also have at least one "peer review" type exchange of questions to help identify additional translations. But the tend to rely too much on user reports.

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