"Her previous husband"
Translation:Hennes förra man
It's förra veckan for 'last week', but hennes förra man instead of mannen...what point did I miss?
Late answer, but after owners in the genitive and possessive pronouns we don't have determinate nouns in Swedish, neither do you in English. You don't say the boy's the book, and you wouldn't say her the previous husband either (I hope). It's like the noun gets determinate enough by being owned by someone.
Let's see if i have this right. I typed förre man and it was accepted. It also suggested förra man. Förre was accepted because it is a man? But it would have to be hsns förra fru, could not use förre here??
Why can't this be "Sig förra man?" Am I misunderstanding something? Thank you in advance.
First off, it would be sin instead of sig because sig is a pronoun instead of a possessive adjective. In this sentence, it would be best to use hennes because "she" isn't referred to earlier in the sentence. Sin is a reflexive possessive adjective that refers to the pronoun earlier in the sentence.
Ok, but if she was mentioned before, we could use "sin", and that's just the case making us remember the difference?
I am not entirely sure about the difference between förre and förra. Could anyone explain?
It's true that the e ending is masculine: it's used only with nouns denoting male beings, but it's optional, you don't need to use it at all. But förra is not feminine: it can be used for all nouns. The genders in Swedish are neuter (ett words) and common gender (en words).