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  5. "They have no plates."

"They have no plates."

Translation:De har inga tallrikar.

January 21, 2015



Why don't we use 'inte' in this case?


Because you're asked to translate negating the existance of plates, rather than the verb.


So any phrase that says "no (something)" its always tranlated as "inga (something)"?


Yes, preferrably.


I have a quick question: In some sentences, I am able to write "de" as "dom," and it will still be marked as correct. This is not the case, in this sentence. Is there a reason for this? Is writing "de" as "dom" correct, or just slang? Thank you, in advance.


It should be accepted everywhere, but it hasn't been added everywhere yet. If you find a place where it's missing, just report it and we'll add it. – It's not wrong to write dom but I don't think it looks as good as using de/dem correctly. Many Swedes struggle with the difference between de and dem, and in that case it may be better to use dom than to use the wrong one. But, if you already know English, the difference should not be difficult for you, so I'd recommend using de/dem.


What's the difference between 'inte' and 'inga'? Examples?


Why is "De finns inga tallrikar" not correct?


Det finns inga tallrikar (with the formal subject 'det') would mean There are no plates. That is not what the English sentence means. have is har, so it must be De har inga tallrikar.


oh, okay, thank you

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