Because in English do we really say the apple of the girl?!?! No, that wouldn't make sense in English so we say "The girls' apples
Here, lemme try to explain:
When you form the genitive (possessive) form of a word in English, you add 's. But if that word already ends in -s, like "girls" or "Marcus" then you'd get "girls's" "Marcus's", but that second s is not said, so you leave it away in spelling and only put the apostrophe to show that it's a genitive form:
girl -> girl's girls -> girls's -> girls'
eu coloco "The apples belong the the girls" and was marked wrong? Por que?
belong to**? well, that would be "as maças pertencem às meninas" - same meaning but not the same sentence.
'das' means "de + as"? I am glad for a Portuguese native speaker to correct this. :)
Exactly! You always have to link them:
- de + a = da (plural: das)
- de + o = do (plural: dos)
Cool! That's something they don't have in Spanish. It's pretty easy to catch on to. Thanks for telling me you agree!
Not true. In Spanish you say "del" for "de el". You say "al" for "a el". You don't form a contraction with the feminine because the feminine article is "la" and contractions only form when the the first word ends with a vowel and the second word begins with a vowel. I believe that "del" and "al" are the only Spanish contractions but I could be wrong.
I was aware of those contractions, but the feminine article is never included in a contraction.