"I already put salt in the pasta."
Translation:Yo ya le puse sal a la pasta.
I wrote "Ya puse sal en la pasta" and it was accepted. Now I wonder what is "le" about here. Does it refer to "a la pasta"?
I too want to know why. We can see that "le" is used as an indirect object pronoun, so "a la pasta", must translate literally as "to the pasta", the action is made "to the pasta". So "le", is an indirect object pronoun representing and re-affirming that the action of putting salt, "I put salt", was indirectly received by "la pasta". Discussion to confirm this or expand on this is encouraged.
Hola! The DO receives the action of the verb and tells us what the subject of the verb is doing; therefore 'sal' must be a DO, because he put salt. An IDO tells to whom or for whom the DO is going. I do not understand why you need a DO pronoun if the DO is explicit ( see other comments here). But if you did then I would say it should be 'la' as 'sal' is feminine.
Yes, Spanish la sal is feminine, unlike French le sel and the original Latin word.
Redundant pronouns for objects that are already explicit are a peculiarity of Romance languages.
The direct object pronouns are lo/la (m. sg./f. sg.) and los/las (m. pl./f. pl.). The indirect object pronouns are le (sg.) and les (pl.) regardless of gender. So we are dealing with a gender neutral indirect object pronoun, not a feminine direct object pronoun.
What I couldn't figure out is why we have an indirect object pronoun here. I am pretty sure sal is a direct object. I found a source saying that under certain circumstances the indirect object pronouns can replace the direct object pronouns, but according to another source that's only for masculine objects. Maybe a la pasta is regarded as an indirect object and that's what the pronoun refers to?
"Another translation: Yo ya le puse sal a la pasta."
I would really like to know if that sentence sounds extremely verbose to a native Spanish speaker!
My translation was: Ya puse sal en la pasta.
I would also really like to know if there is something, for a lack of better words, wrong or unnatural with my translation!
Thanks to anybody who takes the time to respond.
English "put" is ambiguous about the tense. But "already" makes it clear that it can't be present tense. So in Spanish you also need some form of past tense.
The English word, 'Put', is clearly past tense. I.E. He put the cup in the cupboard; He put his golf club in his golf bag; He put his shoes on. Whereas 'Putting' can be some form of past tense but also present tense. I. E. He was putting his shoes on. He is putting his shoes on.
In the third person you would be right because there the present tense ends in s, but the sentence is in the first person:
"I put salt in the pasta." "I put the cup in the cupboard." "I put my golf club in my golf bag." "I put my shoes on."
They can all be read as present tense or past tense.
Here's another twist to this! :how would you translate I put it in(salt in the pasta), how would you translate that? : Sela puse, right?. Appreciate feedback