Translation:The students will have received the notes.
Not confusing, just a denotative translation instead of a connotative translation. I may be wrong, but I think that you are looking at it too literally.
Thanks for that - 3 years ago .... It is confusing sometimes when "the" is translated as "our" or"his" or something like that, but as another poster said it just makes sense.
I'm reluctant to make any judgements though.
I have reported several times to DL that in Spanish the future perfect tense is very often used to express probability. To me the translation, "The students probably received the (their) grades" makes more sense than the accepted translation. In any Spanish language book you will see an explanation that the future perfect is used to express probability or conjecture with regard to something that took place in the recent past. Since the purpose of this program is to teach Spanish, providing very unnatural translations to both the English speaker and Spanish speaker does not serve to teach the purpose of the tense. Thanks for letting me vent.
Interesting! When I was learning Spanish, the future tense to be exact, I was practicing all of the future conjugations with my good friend. She is a native Spanish speaker. I avoided the use of "Voy a ..." because I wanted conjugation practice. She explained that in Mexico if you use the future tense is expresses uncertainty. The example she gave me was, if I said to her, "te llamare" she would think I was just being polite, but I was probably not going to call. However, if I said "Te voy a llamar" it meant I was definitely going to call her.
In this particular case, though, the English and Spanish really do work the same way. If someone says "The students will have received their grades by now," everyone understands it as meaning "I think the students have already received their grades." This one is really a.good example for teaching people why the Spanish future tense has this alternate meaning.
I don't understand your objection to the use of will. If the results are released at the end of August, then saying they will have received their grades, if you're talking about September, it perfectly correct, and the use of, probably, would be wrong.
For it to be correctly translated as "their" grades, I think the use of the reflexive would be needed. The reflexive is used whenever the subject of the sentence -- in this case, "los estudiantes" -- is also the receiver of the action.
Who receives the grades? The students receive the grades. Written like this:
"Los estudiantes se habrán recibido las notas,"
I think you could translate it as
"The students will have received their grades."
Compare this to:
"Me lavo las manos."
"I washed my hands."
I realize that a note or a grade is not a body part, but it is my understanding that use of the definite article with the reflexive and translated with a possessive determiner (sometimes called a possessive adjective) is not limited to just body parts.
For a good review on the reflexive, visit the page below:
Notas can mean "grades" or "marks." And it looks like it is used informally to mean report card (although boletín is the word for report card). So maybe report card would work. But I don't think reports would.
Not report card. The grades that are ON the report card.
other words for report card:
el boleto de calificaciones cartilla escolar
"Grades" and "marks" are used informally in American English to mean "report card."
Yes it can! Our children go to Spanish school and that is the ONLY word they use when they collect their end of term report. "Hoy van a dar las notas" is what they say. But it can also be used to mean marks. "He sacado una buena nota en el examen hoy". So, "nota" for a mark in a specific exam, and "notas" for end of term report
"Notas" means "marks" (British and American English) or "grades" (American English). "Grados" translates to English as "grades," but it doesn't translate as "marks."
Observe that when you say "the students would have received their grades" you normally imply that they did not in fact receive them. "They would have received them except for the postal strike." This requires the conditional perfect, not the future perfect: Los estudiantes habrían recibido las notas. Or you could imagine this is the "future in the past," with something like "He knew the students would have received their grades, so . . ." but that also requires the Spanish conditional perfect, not the future perfect.
When you say "will have" you either mean at some time in the future "By this time next week the students will have received their grades" (true future perfect) or else you mean you think they already have but you don't know for sure. "The students will have received their grades by now. Let's see how they're reacting." (suppositional future perfect) The Spanish future perfect translates both of these as well.
Will have is a future tense.
Would have is a conditional tense, usually for events in the past.
... So, I tried to use the word "results" and it was rejected. I thought it would be neutral enough, but still make the point. A teacher giving kids notes does not make any sense.
This phrase is tricky because it can be translated at least two ways depending on the meaning of the speaker. Habran can be used as future or as a present progresive. Ie. It could be translated will recieve but more commonly as should/would have recieved. Will have recieved is not common English.
"their grades" should be accepted. "the grades," while not wrong, doesn't sound right in everyday English.
I see that ' have gotten' is accepted, which is an archaic form no longer used in standard english but is I believe retained in some dialects!
First, I'd just like to say that American English is considered as standard a dialect as British English. In fact, there are so many large English-speaking populations living in diverse places that it is my understanding that 1) British English is no longer considered the only "correct" English dialect, and 2), no one English dialect is considered better than any other.
"Have gotten" is NOT archaic, although I just learned that "have gotten"/"has gotten" is a regionalism for the entire North American continent. As a native American English speaker, I've been saying "I've gotten" all my life, and I've heard it from everybody around me. Just to check that it wasn't just me or those in my state using an archaic word, I googled the words "have gotten" and got 59,000,000 results. Then I googled "has gotten" and got 561,000,000 results. Indisputably, the participle "gotten" is still in use by a sizeable number of people.
This website explains the British dislike of "have gotten." The website also explains that "have gotten" is accepted and used throughout North America, which had a population of 565,265,000 as of 2016. See: http://grammarist.com/usage/got-gotten/
This website explains why American English uses "gotten" and "got" to convey different meanings, and how the use of "gotten" evolved in North America. See: http://www-personal.umich.edu/~jlawler/aue/gotten.html
I was quite interested to learn that "notas" = "grades." I wrote "Students will have received the notes" and got marked incorrect because I was translating "Los estudiantes" as an uncountable. Anyone have any ideas why the uncountable interpretation was not accepted? I thought that as there was no context, my translation might work. Myself, I learned "los grados" as "the grades."
Isn't 'grado' = 'degree' as in temperature or maybe social level? Btw sorry about the 'gotten' I was feeling controversial!
Apologies in advance for the length of this posting.
EX 1 Spanish future perfect tense in indicative mood is the same in both languages. "Los estudiantes se habrán recibido las notas"/"The students will have received their grades" has a singular Spanish helping verb, "habrán," that translates into the compound English helping verb "will have." In English, the helping verb "will" is future tense, the helping verb "have" is perfect tense, and when they are used together as "will have," they form the future perfect tense when they precede a past participle, as in the example "will have received."
EX 2 Spanish future tense in conditional mood is NOT the same in both languages: "Los estudiantes se habrián recibido las notas"/"The students would have received their grades." All Spanish conditional tenses describe possibility. In other words, the idea of "would" is conditional in Spanish, and “habría" (would) is referring to a hypothetical action that has not yet occurred and, by extension, referring to an unknown factor that could interfere with the students actually getting their report cards. When an English speaker says, “I’m so hungry that I COULD eat a horse,” he is describing his hunger by making a conditional statement–hypothetically he would be capable of eating a horse, even though he might or he might not–rather than describing the probability of his actually eating a horse if one were available. However, if an English speaker says, “I’m so hungry that I WOULD eat a horse,” then the sentence has drifted from a hypothetical statement into the realm of probability. In other words, he would eat a horse if he could get his hands on one. Both sentences are hypothetical, but the first is talking about a possibility if a horse is available, while the second is talking about a high probability if the condition of availability is met.
Spanish uses the helping verb “habría/habrías/habrían” to mean “could,” “would, and “should” because there is no direct translation for these English modal verbs and their fine distinctions of meaning. English has a different use for the word “would,” which is to indicate habitual action: “He would walk to school every morning.” From what I’ve read in the forums, Spanish does not have this use. Also, while both Spanish and English use “could,” “would, and “should” in sentences that have conditional clauses, English does not classify these helping verbs as being alternate translations of "habría." Rather, English classifies these verbs as distinct and separate “modal verbs” with different shades of meaning. It is also worth remembering that some English grammarians regard the helping modal verbs “can,” may,” and “must” as being in “potential mood.”
English uses modal verbs to express the moods and opinions of the speaker, as well as to express possibility and probability. The modal verb “CAN” indicates immediate (think present tense) possibility (I can do that/I cannot do that now). The modal verb “COULD” indicates (think future tense) possibility at some unspecified time (I could do that later). The modal verb ”WOULD” usually indicates habitual actions in the past (I would drive to work every morning), but it can also indicate a potential future action, especially when used subjunctively in the subordinate clause of a complex English sentence (I would not do that if I were you). The modal verbs “SHOULD” and “OUGHT” are used for suggestions and predictive statements. The modal verb “MUST” is used for involuntary obligations, as well as for commands and demands.
The modal verb “SHALL” originally meant “am obliged to another" or “am compelled by another.” Example 1: “I shall go to bed immediately because my mother asked me to do that" (obligation to obey mother). Example 2: "My mother said I shall go to bed immediately whether I like it or not" (external coercion). Because it was once maintained that “shall” indicated external pressure, “SHALL” was once used with 1st person to mean "I feel compelled/obliged to " and used with 2nd and 3rd person to mean that the speaker, AKA "I,“ intends that the 3rd person, AKA "he," will be compelled by the speaker. For example, "He shall do what I say, whether he like it or not." The modal verb “WILL” originally meant “intend” and indicates internal determination and resolve. For example, "I will return in the morning." Because the modal verb "will” once indicated internal drive, “will” was used with first person to mean “I intend” and with second and third person to mean “You/he will/must " (because I intend for you to do it/because I will it). Probably because these distinctions are so difficult to remember, they are now falling into disuse and are mostly ignored by many English speakers.
In summary, the English verb "would" can indicate a hypothetical yet probable outcome. In other words, depending on factors that may not have not been verified but seem logically probable, it is the speaker's opinion that it is likely that "the students would have received their grades.” (think "Ellos se habrán recibido los notas" OR "Ellos se habrían los notas.") One of the tip-offs that "their receiving their grades is likely" is the use of the perfect tense helping verb "have." Thus, the verb “would” can be used when a speaker wants to make a slightly stronger argument than the merely conditional "They could have received their grades." Second, as mentioned in the last paragraph, “would” can be used to indicate repetition.
I generally don't like using wikipedia as a source, but this page has a considerable amount of background information that supports this posting of mine: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conditional_mood
It's rare in Australia for a teacher to hand out notes to students, more often marks, results or annual reports are handed out.
Why in ghe sotld are they continuing to supply ghe answers? It's not the best way - for me - to learn
Is this really the translation, or, is it actually:
The students will receive the notes.
If not, how would I say the translation I came up with?