Why is would in front of I here, with -skulle jag- ?
The structure is like this:
[subclause] skulle jag köpa nya kläder,
which makes the verb fall nicely into the 2nd place in the sentence where we like to have it.
I didn't get it.
So "om jag hade pengar" is like an adverb that comes in the beginning of the sentence so it forces "skulle" to come before Jag?
Yes, a subclause can fill 'a place' in a sentence just like an adverb can. There's a much longer post about word order here that might be helpful too: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/8970470
Could så be inserted between pengar and skulle?
Sure could. :)
Wow, that was fast! I'm sure you don't need a lingot, but you deserve one anyway. You can probably find a deserving recipient to pass it on to ...:-)
I do have a few, but I appreciate the gesture anyway. Cheers. :)
How woukd one say 'if I had money, would I buy new clothes?' is it the same just with a question mark?
That is correct. :)
I had the same question. However, it is hard when it comes to verbal swedish. Just a thought.. but maybe using "så" here would help differentiate it from a question. Like in : Om jag hade pengar så skulle jag köpa kläder. Can somebody confirm?
så would definitely mean it can no longer be a question, yes.
Right in the feels.
In older/formal English, it's sometimes acceptable to say "Had I money, I would ..." instead of "If I had money, ..."
Is there some equivalent to this in swedish?
"Hade jag pengar skulle jag ..."
Yes, exactly like that. :)
Is 's' before 'r' pronounced as [ʃ] even at the words' junction?
Yes, that's the normal pronunciation.
"If I had the money I would buy new clothes" was not accepted, but sounds much more natural than the translation given.
Report it, then. :)
Har en dröm som ska bli sann
Jag vill ha en förmögen man
Som ger mig allt jag pekar på
Ja, allt jag drömt om ska jag få
Money, money, money
Jag och han i
Sagan sann i