Why is would in front of I here, with -skulle jag- ?
The structure is like this:
[subclause] skulle jag köpa nya kläder,
which makes the verb fall nicely into the 2nd place in the sentence where we like to have it.
I didn't get it.
So "om jag hade pengar" is like an adverb that comes in the beginning of the sentence so it forces "skulle" to come before Jag?
Yes, a subclause can fill 'a place' in a sentence just like an adverb can. There's a much longer post about word order here that might be helpful too: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/8970470
Could så be inserted between pengar and skulle?
Sure could. :)
Wow, that was fast! I'm sure you don't need a lingot, but you deserve one anyway. You can probably find a deserving recipient to pass it on to ...:-)
I do have a few, but I appreciate the gesture anyway. Cheers. :)
Right in the feels.
How woukd one say 'if I had money, would I buy new clothes?' is it the same just with a question mark?
That is correct. :)
I had the same question. However, it is hard when it comes to verbal swedish. Just a thought.. but maybe using "så" here would help differentiate it from a question. Like in : Om jag hade pengar så skulle jag köpa kläder. Can somebody confirm?
så would definitely mean it can no longer be a question, yes.
In older/formal English, it's sometimes acceptable to say "Had I money, I would ..." instead of "If I had money, ..."
Is there some equivalent to this in swedish?
"Hade jag pengar skulle jag ..."
Yes, exactly like that. :)
Is 's' before 'r' pronounced as [ʃ] even at the words' junction?
Yes, that's the normal pronunciation.
"If I had the money I would buy new clothes" was not accepted, but sounds much more natural than the translation given.
Report it, then. :)