I had "I don't know if he wants" as a correct suggestion. This is a nonsense sentence in english.
I got "I do not know if he wants to." Added to the pronunciation, and without context, who knew?
Why is this translating to "i don't know whether he wants" - that's not a full English sentence.
In English you say ”He wants to do it”. In Swedish you say Han vill göra det. There is no equivalent of the ”to”.
So, in this sentence, the "to" that English would use, is just implied here?
It's an artifact of the English use of the infinitive form of verbs at the end of sentences like these. This sentence simply happens to lack the verb in question (but is still grammatical in English).
Iflan vs om.....whats the difference Can we use any of them or there are some conditions