"We had given you food."
Translation:Nosotras te habíamos dado comida.
I answered "te habiamos dado la comida" and still got it wrong. If I remember correctly, "la comida" was accepted before in similar sentences. (Or am I just mistaken???)
You're right. SO often, the places where English uses an article, Spanish doesn't, and vice versa. I end up just guessing most of the time, and this time I guessed wrong. I wish there were a little more rhyme and reason to it. Maybe there is, but the whole "concept vs. specific item" idea doesn't seem to hold true all the time, or else I just haven't wrapped my brain around it yet!
I know! There are "rules of thumb" for english so you usually can get direction. But have none for español yet.
i don't know what the rule is, but personally i always, in my "Spanglish" self, use the la/el where I would in English, and I STARTED to this time, and then I said, wait, no, they're going to leave it out, and I was right, they did!!! So I feel like I am JUST BEGINNING to internalize some things, like kids do when they're learning it, rather than more or less directly translating from English. IT WOULD BE NICE, though, if THEY made the rules a little more explicit, since we ARE learning this as adults!!!
It took me a while to understand that Duolingo is mainly an application for practising languages. Most of the time we have to find the "rules" and all the other details of grammar elsewhere.
You seem to be making great progress. I started learning Spanish from scratch almost four years ago. I was past the beginning of year three before I started to get a sense of when it looked or sounded right!
I recently saw a reference in another Discussion to a great programme. If you already have some Spanglish it may be worth checking it out at https://www.languagetransfer.org/ (Despite the current appeal for money it is actually FREE - and no ADS!)
It is all audio - listening, speaking, and understanding. And the techniques aim to use what we already know (in contrast to some of the comments I have seen here like "Hey! We are learning [foreign language] --- who cares about the English?").
I am gradually working through the Spanish audios (in parallel with DL) and I have made more progress in my "does it sound right" over the last two months than the last four years of Duolingo!
I wrote the same thing. It was definitely accepted that way in previous sentences and was marked wrong if you didn't write "la" though I do not recall what the context of those sentences were.
Your answer means "We had given you THE food", but "the" is not needed here. Use "la comida" when directly translating "the food" or when talking about a general concept of food ("Chinese food" = "la comida China").
There are many other examples were "the" was not in the question yet was required by Duolingo
tu/tus = your, tú = you (subjective case), te = you (objective case - both direct indirect)
Take a look at grammar pages on direct indirect object, subjective objective case, for more guidance (try Google). There are also lots of suggestions on these in the comment pages, esp in the comments on the starting pages for each group of lessons.
David, it marked me wrong for te and said i should have used le. But I don't understand! Since you wrote this comment, I am assuming that you DO understand. Can you please explain it to me?
I also had the same problem but I believe I have figured out he difference. "te" does mean you but so does "le". now you might be saying wait...what? but "Te" is an informal you. it would be used with your friends and those you are close to or know well. "Le" is a formal you. it would be used to show respect to someone older than you or when you first meet someone."Le" is also used for third person, talking about "him" or "her". If you were saying "We had given him food" "le" would be used. "te" should be accepted as well as "le" I think this is probably a Duo error. If you encounter it again I would encourage you to report it and i hope this helps you understand "te" and "le".
What is the rule for putting the "te" first? I thought habíamos te dado sounded right.
Never split verbs in Spanish. "me","te", "le" always go before the first verb, never between, but if the 2nd verb is infinitive it can be joint to the end instead.
Am pretty sure Duolingo has not introduced the word "Os" yet & a quick trawl has left me a little more confused- it seems to be some form of transduction meaning 'you all' in an informal maner (?)
seems right, "os" is the possesive pronoun for the second person plural.
I originally typed. "Habíamos tu dado comida." My answer was marked wrong and the correct answer shown was "Habíamos le dado comida." I typed this in verbatim the second time around and it was marked incorrect again and showed the correct answer was "Te habíamos dado comida." Seriously Duo?!
As TrentBrandie said up the page, don't split the compound verb.
Incidentally, I understand that DL's algorithm identifies an error based on the list of acceptable translations, but then sometimes gets confused and doesn't give a correct alternative.
I said: Habíamos usted dado comida. I'm sure it's an obvious error, but I can't see it.
As TrentBrandie said up the page, don't split the compound verb.
And the "you" is an indirect object so use te, le, os (in Spain), or les.
The correct answer is given as "os habíamos dado comida". What does "os" mean exactly?!?
"os" is the possesive pronoun for "vosotros", 2nd person plural, the informal version of you all. it seems that it's only used in Spain.
I didnt put os. It was marked wrong. How are we to know we are speaking to two or more people
as far as i understand it has to be either "te habíamos dado comida a ti" or "le habíamos dado comida a usted"
What is the difference using 'le' and 'lo' for you? I wrote "lo habiamos dado comida". I get so confused sometimes.
The correct answer is "Te habíamos dado (a ti) comida." The pronoun is necessary and "a ti" is used for emphasis, or when used in third person: "a él", "a ella" "a usted" can be used to avoid ambiguity.
Is "Nosotros te habiamos dado comida" accepted? because when I said this into my microphone, it didn't recognize it, and the correct translation it listed was "Te habiamos dado comida."
My sentence for this was "Nosotros le habíamos dado comida a tu" and it said it's incorrect, giving me this answer: "Nosotros le habíamos dado comida a ud."
What's 'ud'? Haven't seen that yet, ever.
That should be "Ud." It is the abbreviation of usted.
I am so confused! When do we use lo and le, and te, and when do you know when to put an adjective first and the noun second???
'Nosotros le habíamos dado comida" is what it gave for the answer. WHAT?!! How can "you" be "le"?!? I am thoroughly confused! Especially since here on the discussion page, it says "te"!!! What is going on?!!
"We had given you food".
The direct object [DO] is "food".
The indirect object [IO] is "you".
If you aren't sure then re-phrase the sentence: "We had given food [DO] to you [IO]".
"you" (subject) can translate to:
singular familiar tú
singular formal usted
plural familiar (in Spain) vosotros
plural formal (in Spain) and plural (Latin America) ustedes
The indirect object pronouns are:
te (you singular familiar)
le (him, her, or you singular formal)
os (you plural familiar)
les (them, or you plural formal)
Note that where Spanish uses te or le (for example), we often find that the equivalent English will be "to you" or "for you".
There is a lot more detail on Indirect Object Pronouns at https://studyspanish.com/grammar/lessons/iopro1
There are more explanations at:
And I'm sure your search engine will offer lots more references.
Surely in 'Nosotros le habíamos dado comida' (the correct answer given to me) le should be te? As far as I can undertsand with le it's saying 'we had given HIM food..'
Why put hints if they are wrong!!! If I select it and you say it's wrong then it's not a hint!!! Multiple questions have had bad hints.
Yes, it works like in English without article is a general food with artile is a concrete food.