"Their father allows it."
Translation:Su padre lo permite.
You would use "sus" if it was two parents. "sus padres". It agrees with what is being possessed not the number of people doing the possessing.
And again we have one of these context answers. From the spanish sentence you cannot take the "their".
I said "Su papá lo permite" and it was marked as wrong. Surely that's an error, right?
I could be wrong or splitting hairs here, but papá is more like "dad" or "daddy" whereas padre is closer to "father" (or "parent").
Hola erlend_sh: Just to back up what "snrzhu" posted: I will state if more certainly" "papá" is not "more like" dad - it IS "dad". And "padre" is not just "closer" to father -- it IS "father". Chau. Felices Días de Fiesta.
I tried 'la' rather than 'lo' for the hell of it and was marked wrong. Is it convention to use 'lo' when the object is unknown?
I put the lo at the end and it was marked wrong... but i saw some sentences where lo or la was at the end???
My understanding is that you can only attach the direct object pronoun to the verb if the verb is conjugated as infinitive or imperative: Él puede dejarlo (He can allow it.) or "Dejelo!" (Allow it!)
Not only. 'Su padre permítelo' is a correct form too, but just in a few places like here, in Asturias (northern Spain)
I'm sure I've seen sentences where the person goes at the end (like "lo permite su padre)... Does this ever work?
How do i know this sentance refers to anything plural as in 'their.' Why not translate it "His father permits it?"
And any of those translations are correct. You will know the gender from context.
Why is there no "se" here but there is in:
"At this hotel dogs are not allowed." Translation: En este hotel no se permiten perros.