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  5. "Te voy a dar este artículo."

"Te voy a dar este artículo."

Translation:I am going to give this article to you.

January 29, 2015



Why does DL repeat the 'ir a' construction all over again in this lesson? I thought we were going to learn the future tense but for the last couple of lessons I have only seen sentences that use 'ir'.


I was going to ask the same question.


You do realize that "te voy a dar" (= i'm going to give you) is future, right?

Indeed, Duo could teach instead "te daré" (= I'll give you), but, afaik, it's more common to use the 'ir a' + infinitive construction


There's a whole section on phrasal future. I've already done that one until I hate having to strengthen it. I expected to be drilled on future simple here, so I can actually learn something new, not redo what I've already redone a thousand times.

This seems lazy on Duo's part.


Yes. Ir a +infinitive is the common spoken future just like I am going to is in English. In more formal written contexts the future tends to be used, although you wouldn't really consider the ir construction informal speech.


I think the problem is that the section has rotted over time. Duo will change the preferred answer(s) to an item if there is a more correct or more common variant. Thus the "ir a" construction leaking in.


Why is this one wrong: I am going to give to you this article

But these are correctos: • I am going to give you this article. • I am going to give this article to you.


Very odd English (here in Minnesota) with the 'to' included. ;)


It may not be technically wrong and it still makes perfect sense but it is very odd to me as a native English speaker in Texas. People just do not phrase it like that. It sounds more suitable for poetry. "Give" has an implied "to" in it so if you use a "to" directly after it it is redundant.


Thanks. Now I understand. Seems that I am learning English as well I am going to give to you this article. = Sinulle annan minä tämän artikkelin. (Tranlated to Finnish, to you stressed in a poetic way as well)


Please see my explanation below as to why it's ungrammatical. I probably should have addressed you rather than Rocky.


Completely incorrect. Give does not have an implied "to".

The reason is that in English you always can say: verb <direct object> <prepositional phrase (with a recipient)>. (Eg, I'm throwing the ball to you. I'm cooking a meal for you.) And for certain verbs you can move the recipient in front of the direct object and it becomes the indirect object: Verb <indirect object> <direct object> (I'm throwing you the ball. I'm cooking you a meal).

But you CANNOT move the prepositional phrase in front of the <direct object>. That's why you can't say "I'm cooking for you the meal".
"I give to you the article".

It is simply ungrammatical and unrelated to the verb's semantics.


Subtle grammatical issue. I am going to give you this article. You is the indirect object. In the phrase to you, you is the object of the preposition. When you have an indirect object in English it preceeds the direct object. The prepositional phrase that replaces the indirect object goes after the direct object. Actually indirect objects are one of the only things that separate verbs from their direct objects in English.


"item"not accepted as translation for articulo


I had a brain fart and used "thing", this was accepted. " item" seems equally plausable.


What one commonly says when under the gaze of an older sibling while reading the newspaper!?


"I am going to give you this article" is wrong?


This sentence will come in handy in service ;)


"I am going to give you this article" was maked wrong. "I am going to give this article to you" was stated to be the translation. Tell me what the difference in meaning is, and why my answer is wrong.


Your answer shouldn't be wrong; there is no difference in meaning.


I'm going to give you this article is grammatically the same as I'm going to give this article to you,


Actually it is not grammatically the same. In the sentence I am going to give you this article, the you is the indirect object. In the sentence I am going to give this article to you, the you is the object of the preposition to. In English this difference is important. Of course in Spanish the issue is more complex as the indirect object pronoun is used even when there is a prepositional phrase representing it.


Here - a "the" for you. Isn't that such a useful article?


It seems we have been taught that ir + a is the future tense constructed as "....ing to." This more definite future, "I'll give you..." is a break with that construction of future tense.


I thought "Voy a darte este artículo" would also be correct, but it was marked wrong and I am not sure. (Also, I skipped ahead too quickly by habit so I couldn't report even if I were more sure.) Feedback welcome: Is this wrong? Is it worse, like technically correct but unnatural or something?


It's a good sentence.


And shouldn't it also be accepted you answer "I am going to give to you this article."? Not common English, but not incorrect English.


I read the thread after posting, and am still not sure that the grammatical structure is incorrect. I'll have to research.


What's wrong with: "I am going to give you this article"


Nothing at all.


I wish DL would not combine the English to Spanish translations with those of the Spanish to English. If i am trying to learn to speak Spanish i need to phase my thoughts to way that Spanish grammar works. i.e "I am going to give to you this article" may be ungrammatical in English, (without appropriate punctuation, think magician ), but i should not need to learn/think grammatical English to learn/think/use Spanish.


You could also say "Voy a dárte este artículo." as well, right?


Yes, that's good as well. Just leave the accent out of darte. The stress falls naturally on the first syllable. (As a rule of thumb, a single pronoun grafted to an infinitive doesn't result in an accent mark.)

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