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  5. "Efter resan vilade vi."

"Efter resan vilade vi."

Translation:After the trip we rested.

February 1, 2015



The voice very clearly says "ve" instead of "vi", in both slow and normal version. I reported it.


This happens so often I am wondering whether ‘vi’ is actually pronounced that way sometimes?


That's how I interpreted it


I used "relaxed" instead of rested, thinking they were interchangeable.

Is it strictly koppla av = relax and vila = rest?


Yes, that is correct, although they are very close together.


Why is "travel" not accepted?


Because travel is always a verb and resa is a substantive.


Not according to WordReference: http://www.wordreference.com/definition/travel. It is used more as an uncountable noun though, so I agree that here "trip" is more to the point. But not because "travel" is never a noun.


But still, according to the link you provided and as you said yourself, when (rarely) used as a noun, it's uncountable and never in the definite form (the travel). That would be the reason why it can't be translated here like this.


Hadn't I already agreed about that?


In "Gulliver's Travels" is it not a definite, countable noun?


Yes, we had. But the fact that you can't use travel as a definite noun is the explanation why it can't be used to translate the given sentence.


(I'm not allowed to reply, I don't know why). That's exactly what I wrote 43 minutes ago.


I've read through the comments, but one thing I'm curious about, given the v2 rule, is how to turn this into a question? Mind you, this would be a hard sentence to properly place, "We rested after the trip?" but it could be that the speaker forgot, or maybe is being sarcastic. :P In any case, would it just be "Vilade vi efter resan?"


Yes, it would be Vilade vi efter resan?
Verb first, subject second.
Here's a link to my post about word order: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/8970470
(questions are under #2)


I'm probably asking a pointless question but 'Vi resen efter vilade' would be 'I rested after the trip wouldn't it?


That sentence actually doesn't make any sense. To translate it literally, word by word: We the journey after rested. The pronouns should always be acompanied by the coresponding verb: Vi vilade or vilade vi, depending on the sentence strucutre. Also, efter (after) should come before resan, simply because it's supposed to be after the journey = efter resan. So this leaves onyl a few possible translations: 1. Efter resan vilade vi. 2. Vi vilade efter resan. I can't think of any other version that makes sense to me, but then again I'm no Swedish native speaker and all my sense for what is correct and what not comes from German.


Ah, I see. Thanks :) I also see I used the wrong pronoun in my example. Oops!


It is quite difficult for me to catch in which types of statements we put the werb before the noun/pronoun, just like in questions, and in wich ones we put the werb after the subject.


Generally speaking, when you follow the English word order (subject, verb, object) then the pronouns comes always right before the verb (vi vilade efter resan, vi åt bröd, du åker till skolan...). There are some cases in which you'd rather put the subject at the end of the sentence (or at least after time-specifiers), just out of aesthetic reasons. In these cases, the pronouns needs to go after the subject: Efter resan villade vi, I går åkte vi till marknaden. Hope this helps a bit! Also, I'd be vergy grateful for any native speaker to confirm I'm not writing rubbish :)


You're not wrong, but I'd put it like this:
In Swedish, the important thing is that in main clauses (that are not questions), the verb must go second. So if you choose to put an adverb like efter resan first, you have no choice but to put the verb right after that.

So it's either Efter resan vilade vi or Vi vilade efter resan
The verb doesn't move.

I wrote a much longer post about word order here: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/8970470


Thank you so much! I have been skratching my head over this problem since I started studying Swedish.


why is it not "Efter resan vi vilade"


Because the verb must go second in the sentence. 'efter resan' is a time adverbial which takes up the first place, the verb must go right after that.


As you mention "time adverbial", does the same "time, manner, place" adverbial word order apply as in German?


Why is the word "holiday" not accepted as an alternative to "trip"? In English they are interchangeable, especially depending on which English speaking country you come from.


No, they're not. I go on trips all the time without being on vacation.


I hear people say "travel for work" instead of "trip for work". Is that what you mean? Holiday is a really generalised word, as is trip.


I was thinking of maybe going for a trip to the countryside some evening next week, for instance. In addition, there are road trips, business trips, all kinds of trips really.


True, I just almost never hear the word "trip" used in contexts other than for pleasure. Thanks!


Not sure if it's a strictly UK thing but you can also go on a "trip to the shops" or a "shopping trip" that can imply something as mundane as getting in the car to go and do the weekly grocery shop. So you could rest after a long trip to the shops :)


Why "We were resting after the trip/journey" is incorrect?


Normally, this construction would be perfectly sound, and it's indeed a literally correct translation.

However, I would say there is a difference in idiomatics here. The phrases correspond like this:

  • We were resting after the trip = Vi vilade efter resan
  • After the trip, we rested = Efter resan vilade vi


Can 'resan' be a holiday as well, or just any trip? For example, a trip to the store.


It doesn't have to be a holiday, but it does have to be something that requires travelling. So it's not really applicable for grocery shopping - but if you spend all day driving to and from, say, Ikea... then it might be.


Makes me think of the phrase "chillin' like a villian" because "vilade" looks a bit like "villain"

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