Thank you for teaching me this. Would this mean that Jim would also be lenited? And how would that even work with the J?
You know Bernie's husband. The fella with the head. You know him, drives the red car. You know, he drinks the Heineken in the local. You do, you know him. Well he's dead.
Is [maru:] also a possible pronunciation? afaik, it's another Conamara thing.
I realize that "marbh" is an adjective, but it also describes a permanent state. Yet using "is" instead of "tá" wouldn't be right here, correct?
That’s correct. Note that not all permanent states would use is, and not all temporary states would use bí.
Is 'an bhfuil' the question form of 'tá'? Do other verbs change for questions like this?
I wonder if marbh takes the impermanent copula for religious reasons? Or does tá sé marbh also apply to plants, animals, and dreams?
Where does this "permanent/impermanent" idea for using the copula come from? Tá sé marbh doesn't use the copula because marbh isn't a noun in this sentence.
I was pretty sure Is was for permanent things such as 'it is a dog' and Ta was for impermanent things such as 'it is cold'. (I couldn't type the diacritics) That's how I remember it.
My question, though, was why you were pretty sure that it was for permanent versus impermanent things. I've heard a number of people say that, but I've never seen anyone explain who told them that, or what textbook they got it from, so I just wondered where that idea came from, and whether there was a more formal expression of this "rule".
Unless it was from a teacher who really didn't want to explain the difference between a noun and an adjective, the permanent/impermanent distinction seems to break down a lot (as in this sentence).