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"She let them go without any consequences."

Translation:Ella los dejó ir sin que hubiera consecuencias.

3 years ago

117 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/David.Bte
David.Bte
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Well, I'm a native Spanish speaker and I was testing this course... so I consider there's not a well translation for this one, I mean: the correct one would be: "ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias" or "los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias/consecuencias algunas". So it's up to you

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/calosotico

I am a native Spanish speaker as well, and I believe that (and it was my answer) "Ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" is a perfectly constructed sentence in Spanish. If there is not one consequence, let alone there being two or more consequences. "No hubo consecuencias" is grammatically correct, while "No hubo ninguna consecuencias" is completely wrong.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Joanna907

Also a native Spanish speaker. "Sin consequencia alguna" makes sense to me as well.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/amble2lingo

"Ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" was accepted on Jan 21, 2018. "...ningunas consecuencias" is not accepted.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/espofleet

Dice consecuencias. La oración está mal construida, no?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mariajosegrech

As a native Spanish speaker too, in Spanish language it is usual to use two negatives prepositions to strengthen the meaning of a sentence. "No hubo ninguna consecuencia", "No quería nada", "Nadie quería nada" (and so on), ARE PERFECTLY CORRECT IN SPANISH LANGUAGE, it is the usual way of telling that. But it is not so in English language because if you use two negatives prepositions in the seme sentence it makes a positive meaning.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rowith
rowith
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"Ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" was accepted 1-17-18.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BrainInAVat
BrainInAVat
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I'm so glad you said this. I am not a native speaker, but this was my answer (except I admittedly used les instead of los) and I was really confused about why ningunas wasn't correct. Apparently it was.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Furbolg

Same here. I was just one letter off (used les and not los). Still extremely proud of myself lol

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elizadeux
elizadeux
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According to one of my grammar books, "The plural ningunos/ningunos is rare since one rarely needs to mention more than one of something that does not exist. But it occurs with nouns that are always plural... vacaciones..ganas."

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hesolomon

Is "les dejó ir" incorrect?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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It is, because "les" is only used with indirect objects; the "they" in this sentence in this case is a direct object, and thus "los" is the correct word to use.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

I would be very appreciative if you or anyone could give an example of a sentence using "les" as an indirect object and having a singular direct object. I kind of get the idea, but need a visual to cement my understanding so that I can not only recognize it but also produce such a sentence myself. Thank you.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

Les doy el coche.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mariajosegrech

It is not a direct object, but indirect. If you ask the question "whom did she allows to go?" (indirect object) the answer is "them", so the right answer is "les".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HolyT
HolyT
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In this sentence, them is a direct object of the verb let. I know that there are a few situations in Spanish such that Spanish views an object as indirect while English views it as direct, but according to the native Spanish speakers here, this is not the case here. Them is a direct object in the sentence in both Spanish and English; thus, you must use los or las, not les.

In the sentence, "Whom did she allow to go?" whom is the direct object of allow.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Interesting point about "whom" in this English sentence: Some grammarians describe "whom" as the "subject" of the infinitive "to go." Just goes to show that there are many different approaches to grammar.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mariajosegrech

Here you have a guide about how to use it in a correct manner (http://www.rae.es/consultas/uso-de-los-pronombres-los-las-les-leismo-laismo-loismo). In this sentence "les", as it refers to masculine people is admitted by the Royal Academy of Spanish Language as correct (see "comp. indirect" which means "indirect object") And as a matter of fact, it is the right way to say it.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HolyT
HolyT
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Yes, les is the correct indirect object. But in this sentence, them is a direct object. Thus, you must use the direct object form los or las.

10 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/scarolan108

This is exactly what i wrote, yet it marked me wrong.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

David.bte, íngles es mi lengua nativa. Espero que algún día pueda hablar español como usted habla íngles. Oferto una corrección que el adverbio "well" debería ser el adjetivo "good" porque "well" está describiendo la palabra de "corrección", que es un sustantivo. No olvida, los adjetivos se usan con los sustantivos, y los adverbios se usan con los verbos. Espero que esto ayude. ;^)

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Alethea436961

I'm not a native speaker but I wrote ella los dijo ir que sin ninguna consecuencia . --- and it was marked wrong.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dan_dos
Dan_dos
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Why the need for hubiera?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/egjerlow

I think this is an example of 'hubiera' in the sense of 'there were', same as 'hay' means 'there are'. So 'sin que hubiera consecuencias' means something like 'without there being consequences'. I am not sure why the imperfect subjunctive is used, however - it seems to me that 'había' could be used as well?

EDIT: it seems to be because the consequences are a possibility, not something that actually happened.. so that should explain all, I think.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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I think if you use a verb, it needs to be hubiera, but I don't think this clause needs a verb. Duolingo should accept both possibilities.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elizadeux
elizadeux
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Originally, the English was "without there being consequences." Strangely, "there being" was dropped from the English but the Spanish translation retained "sin que hubiera." Since part of the English sentence was dropped, the "sin que hubiera" seems to appear out of nowhere. This should be corrected.

Sin que triggers the subjunctive IF "the subjects of the subordinate clause and of the main clause are different."

http://grammar.spanishintexas.org/verbs/subjunctive/

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mariajosegrech

Because it is the right grammar concordance between the two verbs in sentences like this in Spanish language.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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This sentence was not presented in English in such a way as would cause the reader to use "hubiera"... If you want to use this example, you have to change the way the English is presented, or you have to accept an answer that uses "sin consecuencias", as that is a perfectly valid translation of the sentence as it is presented.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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Frankly I have seen this problem with the entire lesson, regarding the examples you give to translate from English to Spanish. I think this lesson should be reworked entirely or non subjunctive answers should be accepted.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AshleyBlackwood

This was difficult for me. Dejar= to leave and thus 'let them go' but I would probably have used permitir and would have completely forgot to use 'que+ subj'. My question is: Would there ever be a situation like this where one would use the gerund?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

The subjunctive is required after verbs expressing permission. QUE is needed to introduce the subjunctive clause when the subjects of the main clause and subjunctive clause are different.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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The clause is "without consequences". The scenario you are describing is only necessary if one chooses to use a verb. Yes, Duolingo's translation is grammatically correct for the reason you presented, but it is not necessary to use a second verb in this sentence, and so a clause without one should also be accepted.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

Yes, I agree. Just "sin consequencias" would seem to be just as correct. However if "sin que" is chosen for the translation, the subjunctive must be used as "sin que" is a preposition that is always followed by the subjunctive.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/valarmorgh9

I speak Spanish and there is a mistake here. It is right to say Ella los dejo ir sin ninguna consecuencia. try to fix this.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dexterinthedark

"sin que" requires the subjunctive mood. In English we say "without there being any consequences" but in Spanish they say "without that there are consequences". they use "sin que" for the "without that". and they use the past subjunctive in this example because the other part of the sentence is also past tense. lets use another example. " yo lo hago sin que conozcan" "I do it without them knowing." word for word "I do it without that they know". notice that the sin que clause didn't use "no" .

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

I wonder about when to use a double negative for emphasis. Is this what you're referencing? I had supposed that another negative could appear in the complete subject, if the first negative were in the complete subject, and vice versa. I supposed that another negative might cancel if there were then two negatives in the predicate or in the subject. Do you know if I'm on the right track?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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"I supposed that another negative might cancel if there were then two negatives in the predicate or in the subject."

No. In Spanish, multiple negatives never cancel each other out. They always add to each other, intensifying the negativity.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Thank you for your comment, and a lingot to you. I think you have cleared up my confusion by using the word never, but upon rereading my original post, I realize that my question was unclear. What I was trying to ask was if the additional negatives(s) could appear anywhere in the sentence.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hesolomon

Why "los" and not "les?"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

It is a direct object, not indirect -- but I think in many places 'les' would be used if "they" are people.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/espofleet

Them means they, por not? Also any consecuencia s/be any consecuencia. Don't you think?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Apple8_8

Hubiese is another form of the imperfecto de subjunctivo why is that not also correct?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Because Duolingo is situated in the United States and thus is geared more towards Latin American Spanish and not Castilian Spanish. (Note how the speaker says the sentences - consonantal "y" being pronounced like English "j", no "th" sound in soft c, etc...) In Latin American, the people do not use the -se forms of the imperfect subjunctive.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/showerduo

" Without there having been" any consequences?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/espofleet

La traducción correcta sería: Ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/divaluisa
divaluisa
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Spanish speakers: Would "ella les permitió ir...... be correct? I got the rest wrong but used permetir.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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A direct object is used in the sentence, so "ella los permitió ir" would be correct. Your using of the indirect object "les" would be incorrect.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elizadeux
elizadeux
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I tried "ella los permitió ir sin que hubiera consecuencias" but it wasn't accepted.

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gdobbs123

DL marked "Ella los dejó ir sin consecuencias." as correct.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/elizadeux
elizadeux
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Originally, the translation appears to have been "She let them go without there being any consequences." Why was the English changed, but the Spanish translation wasn't changed to match it?

without there being consequences = sin que hubiera consecuencias

BUT...

without any consequences = sin consecuencias or sin ninguna consecuencia (no que because there is no verb and no hubiera)

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jonathanbost
jonathanbost
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Why is "Ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" accepted and "Ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias" not?

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlanJ.Polasky

What about: 'Ella permitio que ellos fueran sin cualquier consecuencia'?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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This is grammatically incorrect. When you use the verb "dejar" or "permitir" in Spanish, in the sense of "allowing somebody to do something", the second verb that follows is always an infinitive, and the direct object either goes before the first verb as one of "lo, los, la, las" or after the first verb as the full noun itself + a personal "a" if the object is a person.

Also, watch out for your accents; there should be one on permitió.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/frenchnero
frenchnero
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Please explain the need for the subjunctive in this sentence. Is i possibly because it refers obliquely to something (consequences) in the future?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Technically, there is no need for the subjunctive, as "ella los dejó ir sin cualquier consecuencia" o "ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" would work as well, and would be more natural to a native Spanish speaker.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/tx91791

I'm just about ready to give up on this spanish business, and deem Duolingo another over-hyped failure.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

To 'let' or permit an action is one of those verbs, after which, the subjunctive OR an infinitive can be used.* You can find all the rules in any decent grammar. 'Hubiera' is used because the preposition ' sin que' is used(always requires the subjunctive) and the main clause is in the past. 'Hubiese' could be used just as well, although, it is mainly used in literature now.

For most people, Spanish is not an "easy" language for native English speakers to learn. Friends who are bilingual from childhood in English and Spanish tell me that it is easier for a Spanish speaker to learn English than vice-versa. I know that I have never found Spanish easy myself. Learning a second language as an adult requires a high level of commitment. It is something to be very, very proud of having accomplished. Even with some imperfections and mistakes, remember, the main idea is just to communicate.

  • Dejar, along with a few other verbs may be followed by an infinitive or the subjunctive.
3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/swampsparrow
swampsparrow
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I agree with you about the difficulty of Spanish for native English speakers. I hear so many of them claim that it's an easy language, but I suspect that they never got beyond the present indicative, which can give the illusion that it's easy to learn.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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I believe it only requires the subjunctive, however, if you are using an actual verb. "Without consequences" is not a clause that requires a verb to be translated. That's the problem I have with this. The English was presented poorly for the expected Spanish result.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/meginspain2015

very good reply !

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/meginspain2015

my 'very good reply' comment was meant for : gmalcolm77

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

Your very kind, thanks. Have a lingot!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

If you have no background in Spanish, teaching yourself on DL must be much harder. However, if you had some Spanish in school, as I did, DL is a very useful tool.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Don't give up. Try brushing up on the subjunctive in English, and then note the differences in Spanish. If you've gotten this far, you can go the distance.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jmat10
jmat10
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I'm having difficulty with this sentence. Can anyone out there break down the translation word for word?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/adinsh
adinsh
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Why "ella los permitió ir sin que hubiese consecuencias" is marked wrong?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Because you used too many synonyms.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

What do you mean by "synonyms?"

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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The verbs "dejar" and "permitir" are synonyms, and the "-se" forms of the imperfect subjunctive are identical to the "-ra" forms. However, neither the "-se" forms nor "permitir" are accepted by Duolingo, as is typical of Duolingo.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

Since I started using Tinycards, I have been increasing my Spanish vocabulary by using every English synonym I can think of whenever I type in a translation. This seems to be increasing the variety of Spanish sentences and vocabulary being offered for me to translate.

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/WChorneau

I put "Ella les dejo ir si cualquier consequencias." Spanishdict.com gives ow as a translation. I would love to know what folks think about this trranslation.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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You spelled "consecuencias" incorrectly, but otherwise you are fine.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dxm300
dxm300
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I assume you mean "sin cualquier", but otherwise, yes.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Joanna907

I did a literal translation to "Ella los dejo ir sin consecuencia alguna" and got it marked wrong. You never know with Duolingo.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Because that sentence in and of itself is grammatically incorrect. First, it is "los dejó" not "los dejo", because the subject of the sentence is "Ella", not "yo". Secondly, double negatives are correct grammar in Spanish, unlike in English, so one would use "ninguna" in the sentence, not "alguna". Thirdly, the words "alguna", "ninguna", and their derivatives are all placed in front of the noun they describe, so it would be "sin ninguna consecuencia". Finally, "consequences" in the original sentence is plural, so the phrase would actually be "sin ningunas consecuencias". The entire sentence, corrected, should say "Ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias".

Edit: It's "She let", not "She lets", so there is only one correct.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Joanna907

Your two suggestions sound hella awkward in Spanish.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/espofleet

Why Hubiera?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Basically, this Spanish translation in English is literally "She let them go without there having been consequences". Because there is an instance of the verb "there be", a form of haber has to be used. Hence, "hubiera".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Marie532061

I am so glad you said this too. I don't know where the above came from??

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FrankNicho3
FrankNicho3
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thanks for that comment because i get frustrated with Duolingo when i'm "WRONG" when in fact my version is (usually) simpler and often correct!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Romulo.Np
Romulo.Np
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Ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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I think rewriting this sentence slightly to "She let them go without them receiving any consequences" would solve all the problems being expressed in the discussion section here. This sentence here basically means the same as the original, but unlike the original, the translation to Spanish for this one actually requires the subjunctive to be grammatically correct: "Ella los dejó ir sin que recebiesen cualquier consecuencia."

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

I like the way you think, HerrBymur, and you supplied what–I presume–is a native Spanish speaker's understanding of when to use "recebiesen." So here's a sentence for you to chew on: She let them go without their receiving any consequences. Many native English speakers are not aware of 1) why the object pronoun"them" is not correct English, and 2) why the personal pronoun "their" is.

Here's why "their" is correct: The English word "receiving" is a gerund in your sentence example. By definition, a gerund is a verb acting like a noun. Because the verb is acting like a noun, it takes the determiner "their." This works with an English gerund modified by any personal pronoun; for example: My handwriting is poor (gerund as a subject of the sentence); I was very upset by your forgetting my birthday (gerund as the object of the preposition "of"); I await his returning to me (gerund as direct object).

Here's why "them" is not correct: The word "them" is an objective case pronoun but in this sentence is in the syntactactical position of an English noun. Substituting the subject pronoun (AKA the nominative pronoun "they") in that position of the sentence sounds so unacceptable that all a native English speaker has to do is hear it to know how wrong it is. Besides, Spanish also doesn't substitute subject pronouns for object pronouns.

NOTE: Upon rereading this thread,I need to add here that my description is about English grammar, not Spanish grammar. Everything that HerrBymur said in his analysis of the Spanish grammar is well thought out and very helpful.

Since I first wrote this comment, I have learned that Spanish, unlike English, never uses a gerund as the subject of a proposition. Instead, Spanish uses infinitives, and they can be translated as English infinitives, English gerunds, or neither. For example, the sentence "I was very upset by your forgetting my birthday" is translated as "Me molestó mucho que olvidaras mi cumpleaños." I don't know if it is possible to use an infinite here for"que olvidaras mi cumpleaños," and I would appreciate any feed back.

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Savithri5

I am not a native Spanish speaker and I too wrote "ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias"

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/bdawsn

I used «Ella los dijó ir sin ningunas consequencias» and DL gave «Ella los dijó ir sin ninguna consequencia» as the corrected version. I do not understand why consequences must be singular in Spanish. This lesson is terrible. Hints and notes would help. At this point, I am memorizing the answers without understanding them. I actually cut and pasted the solution above into the third (or fourth?) instance of this exercise.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

"Consecuencias" can be singular or plural without changing the meaning, but the example to be translated used "consequences."

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Laverne02

Is it incorrect to say, ella deja ir sin consecuencias.?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/scarolan108

wtf - the answer shown even uses the plural form, yet it told me i got it wrong:


She let them go without any consequences.

Ella los dejó ir sin que hubiera consecuencias

You used the plural "consecuencias" here, instead of the singular "consecuencia".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/RobertKinzie

I put "ella los dejó ir sin ningunas consecuencias" and it was marked wrong because DL said it should have been the singular???????

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Mate168569

It keeps saying I'm wrong. Last time because I used the plural "concecuensias" which they had in the English. I did this because they are sometimes picky about being literal even if the translation sounds awkward. I give up on this one. I'll just type zzz next time I see it!

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PeteFutter

I agree with David.Bte. I'm not a native Spanish speaker, but I can see that the 'correct' answer is more complicated than it needs to be. A different translation question would be more appropriate for this lesson on using the subjunctive.

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Laura692514

the last time I got this sentence, I put the above Spanish translation in and was told it was wrong. Now they're telling me what they told me before is wrong and this is right. Do they even know what they're talking about?

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/milrecan
milrecan
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Consequences is plural here. Why the singular form in this answer

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/duomylingo69

I wrote "consecuencias" and it said I should have used the singular form?

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AlaskanMalamute

Falta la palabra "ninguna"

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rowith
rowith
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"Ella los dejó ir sin ninguna consecuencia" was accepted janm 17, 2018.

8 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/JohnMitche3

why not consecuencias?

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gdobbs123

I put: "Ella los dejó ir sin cualquier consecuencias."

DL marked me wrong.

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DABurnside
DABurnside
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DL corrected my "...ninguna consecuencia" this way: Ella los dejó ir sin que hubiera consecuencias. I would never have thought to construct it that way. Can someone tell me how the hubiera fits into DL's answer, and is the best way to state this idea? (I see from the comments below that several of us went another way on this answer.)

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

'She let them go' is giving permission to go. Permissions require the subjunctive. The way to get the subjunctive into this sentence is to use 'hubiera' (there were). It is the subjunctive of the verb haber and is used in the dependent clause 'without that there were any consequences. This is clumsy in English since we do not use the subjunctive (or conditional) for this purpose, but it is not uncommon in Spanish.

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DABurnside
DABurnside
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Gracias, gmalcom77.

6 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/MarleneGrimaldi

I used plural because it is plural in the English sentence

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisOverc

is "Ella los dejó" not "she left them"? i.e. "she allowed them". or is it more like "she left them to go", more like opening a bird cage. in more colloquial English, "she let them out"? that makes more sense to me. then i can infer that "ella" is the implied subject for "hubiera".

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ChrisOverc

"she let them out without her receiving consequences" or "she let them go and there were no consequences"

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/BobbieJenn

I do not understand why consecuencias is marked incorrect as it is plural and should be consecuencia singular

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Calebtiv
Calebtiv
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Does this have to be "ella los dejó" or is "ella les dejó" acceptable as well?

5 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jonathanbost
jonathanbost
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"Ella les dejó" should not be accepted, as "les" is an indirect object. A sentence cannot have an indirect object without a direct object, and the use of "them" in this sentence is that of a direct object.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Alethea436961

Once again -- Crowns or no Crowns-- the "correct" answer is different than the one on this page. The "correct" answer was ella los dijo irse que sin ninguna consecuencia. My answer was ella los dijo ir que sin ninguna consecuencia and was marked wrong. WHY is it irse? and not ir. The only thing I can think of is "passive"

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

Maybe because the verb is 'dejar'', not 'decir'.

1 month ago

https://www.duolingo.com/alejoferrando

3 years later and they still do not accept plural consequences in spanish

4 weeks ago

https://www.duolingo.com/divaluisa
divaluisa
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Not a native speaker, but I wrote "sin ningunas consecuencias" Rejected. :(

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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"Sin ningunas consecuencias" is correct, except for some odd reason the creators of this problem decided to only accept answers with the subjunctive, even though the answer is unnatural and awkward to native Spanish speakers.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Linda_from_NJ

I'm not completely knowledgeable about the Spanish subjunctive yet, but I think the reason that Duo requires it here is because the "sin consecuencias" is something that didn't happen, something that is therefore a conjecture. In Spanish, conjectures must be expressed in the subjunctive.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/HerrBymur
HerrBymur
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Conjectures must be expressed in the subjunctive if and only if there is a verb in the conjecture; otherwise, it is quite impossible to express it in the subjunctive. In "sin consecuencias", there are no verbs, just the adverbial phrase consisting of a preposition and a noun.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/gmalcolm77

Linda-"Sin que" is a preposition that always requires the subjunctive. There are some others, such as 'antes de que'(time-hasn't happened yet), 'para que'(purpose-inorder that), 'a menos que'(condition-on condition that), or 'como si'(supposition-supposing that). A complete list can be found in a decent grammar. Most of these prepositions use 'que' which introduces the subjunctive clause. There aren't that many common ones and may be easiest just to learn them.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/lambisqueiro

whay not? ella los dejaba ir sin ninguna consecuencia/ sin que hubiera consecuencias.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mealborozo

SO since this feedback has been done over a years time, why hasn't duolingo made a correction?

1 year ago