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"You did not write me."

Translation:Usted no me escribió.

5 years ago

37 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/TilEulenspiegel

Another correct solution is shown as "Tú no me escribiste a mí" Why would "me" need to be clarified by the added personal "a mí" phrase. There can be only one person referred to by "me." Is this just a way to emphasize "you didn't write to ME!"?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

When it comes to indirect object pronouns, you either use them on their own or need them even if you specify the personal phrase. So.

CORRECT

Me escribes.

Me escribes a mí.

(The first version is better in most cases, in my opinion).

INCORRECT

Escribes a mí.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TilEulenspiegel

Thank you, Babella. But I still wonder what important information is provided by adding "a mi" to the idea that is already clear from "Me escribes." There is only one "me" that the indirect object identifies, so there is no potential for confusion as with the indirect object "le" (him, her, you).

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

I know, it is one of those little weird things of each language. Both English options (you write me a letter / you write a letter to me) are the most logical, but in Spanish it doubles for no real reason (or I guess there was one at some point, but I have yet to find someone that knows it...).

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/TilEulenspiegel

OK. If the "a mi" would be commonly added, even if it isn't really needed, then that's just the way it is. I'll remember. And thanks again.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

No, sorry, I think I did not explain myself well! "A mí" is not commonly added, but if you add it, you cannot take the "me" pronoun away, that was what I meant.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Noe326903

I'm guessing it is similar to "I'm fine" and "I'm doing fine".

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jmiker54
jmiker54
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DL told me the correct answer is "Vos no me escribiste" but would not vos be the plural 2nd person personal pronoun, so shouldnt the conjugation for escribir in the preterit be "escribisteis"? or "Vos no me escribisteis?" Help me understand plz.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

Duolingo is right: "vos" is second person singular, it is the same as "tú" or "usted", it is used in some countries, not all of Spanish speaking ones. The second person plural you are talking about is "vosotros" and in that case, you are right about the "escribisteis" :]

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jmiker54
jmiker54
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ok thx

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Samsta
Samsta
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Super thorough explanation: http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/134022/-what-is-vos

It's mainly used in Argentina.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/AndyrxJian
AndyrxJian
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Shouldnt it be, You did not write to me? I didnt know if duolingo acepts it, just curious

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hesolomon

"No me escribió usted:" why is this wrong? Why do I have to use the familiar form?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

You do not need to use the familiar form, but the structure should be the same: Usted no me escribió.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/hesolomon

Thanks.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rlchism

I answered "Tú no me escribió" but it was wrong.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jmiker54
jmiker54
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You used third person instead of the Tu form for the verb. So 'escribiste' might have worked.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rlchism

Thank you. I thought that the verb was the same for both the second person informal and third person in the preterit. Muchas gracias.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlroberts91096

You did not write me, doesn't make any sense anyway. You should say, you did not write to me. This is incorrect and will cause confusion, please modify it, as requested two years ago.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jmiker54
jmiker54
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DL may not ever read these comments. If you want to effect change you need to use the 'report a problem' tool. I would also disagree in that "You did not write me" is acceptable English. You do not need to say "to me" One might also say "will you write me" the "to" is understood.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/krooboy

To clarify for non-native speakers, both are in common usage. To write someone is used in American English (I've often heard it in American media) but not in British English. I'm not sure which one is 'technically grammatically correct', but English is a global language with huge variation which is constantly changing and any native speaker anywhere will understand either construction.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlroberts91096

Kudos to your education. Have a lingot on me.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlroberts91096

Sure

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/FantineFangting

Why not "Tu no lo me escribiste.", as "escribir" requires an object?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VerchiTrku

I think "no me has escrito" is at least one of the correct answers.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VerchiTrku

I think "no me has escrito" is at least one of the correct answers.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VerchiTrku

I think "no me has escrito" is at least one of the correct answers.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/VerchiTrku

I think "no me has escrito" is at least one of the correct answers.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Pedro746283

I went with "Tú me no escribiste" said it is wrong!

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DebbieDrum

This is not English! Should be you did not write to me.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mossicajess

This is not a sentence in English. It should either read "you did not write to me " or "you did not write me a letter". If the English is grammatically incorrect how are we supposed to translate it.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlroberts91096

Thank you for someone who gives the clear explanation to those who believe they know everything.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidRussnak

Two things: one is why do I need the second word referencing 'me?' The other is that those of you saying this is wrong: better study up your English some more because this is a completely correct sentence grammatically. It's a bit outdated, but still correct.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/carlroberts91096

1) Prove this. 2) Where are you from? Native language? 3) I'll remember to ask the next person I know why they "did not write me".

People need to educate themselves properly before opening "la boca".

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dansmisterdans

De la boca de Oxford:
https://en.oxforddictionaries.com/definition/write

2.1 North American Write and send a letter to.
‘Mother wrote me and told me about poor Simon's death’

11 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/GJM101
GJM101
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I got marked wrong for 'A mi no me escribieron'

Is that right? I thought the 'a mi' could go wherever, rather than needing to go at the end

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ravanneclaw

So Duolingo says this is the correct answer "Ud. no me escribió."

Can someone please explain this? Thanks.

11 months ago