"The boy does not eat apples."
Translation:Pojken äter inte äpplen.
Is the word "inte" (= not) always written after the verb when describing a verb? I see that the correct translation is "äter inte äpplen" which places "not / inte" after the verb. Come to think of it in German it is that way too. Anyone can confirm? What about when a verb is past or future tense, would that still be the case? Thank you