Okay, so I entered "There isn't any coffee?!" someone Hjalp mig.
You can create the same sort of question in Swedish by using intonation, Det finns inget kaffe? However, that is not the sentence you're translating here, so you should use the normal question form Is there no coffe? or Isn't there any coffee?
How would you say "Is there any coffee?", then?
Finns det något kaffe?
"Isn't there any coffee?" was my first answer but it was not accepted as being the correct answer. It only counts "Is there no coffee?" as the correct anwser which is weird to me.
I love the implication of panic via the punctuation. Very Swedish, from what I understand.
How is "There is no coffee?!" not also an answer? The ?! makes the question implicit, and the word order shouldn't make a difference in translation (not transliteration)
We're sticking to question-oriented word order in English translation so as to make a point of the inversion of subject and verb.
I wrote "Is there not coffee?!". Would this be correct? If not, how would you say this?
That would be Finns det inte kaffe?! I get that the end result is the same, but we try to teach the difference between "no" and "not" throughout the course.
is there any grammar resources about using word finns?
Shouldn't be 'is there any coffee' instead?
The sentences expresses surprise and/or indignation that there is no coffee, presumably because somebody drank or took it all.