"My brothers like beer."
Translation:A mis hermanos les gusta la cerveza.
Why is it not "mis hermanos gusta cerveza"? Why are we using pronouns here when there are none in the English sentence?
I will answer my own question. What comes before gusta here is actually the indirect object (remember, gusta actually is better thought of as to please and not as to like). The indirect object pronoun is always required and the clarifier must be preceded by the "a pronoun". Those are the laws of the Spanish language!
Because the subject, beer, is singular . The sentence is " beer is pleasing to my brothers". The les is the indirect object pronoun for 'them,' which is clarified by "a mis hermanos"
I'm prone to make many typos and you may have done the same.
I had "A mis hermanos les gusta cerveza."
I was counted wrong because of not having the definite article "La" before cerveza.
You might have counted incorrect for the same thing. Also for the missing "S" on mis in "A mis hermanos".
I'm used to hearing the indirect object before gustar. You might still be correct with word order but I'm used to hearing something more like "A mis hermanos les gusta la cerveza," or "A mí me gusta el vino."
Are both the initial "A" and the definite article "la" actually required in this? Does
"mis hermanos les gusta cerveza" translate differently or just sound weird to native speakers?