Why is it "fin" instead of "fina" in this case? Is it because the adjective is not directly in front of the noun?
Yes, it’s din fina klänning (directly before the noun, or ’attributively’) but din klänning är fin (after the verb, or ’predicatively’)
Not really the same meaning in Swedish and English. It's more positive in Swedish than in English.
I have to disagree. Phrases like "She has a fine dress" may be considered archaic today but none the less valid
I agree with you that it isn't archaic, but this is beside the point – the question here is about whether it means the same or not!
She has a white dress would also be a very common sentence but that doesn't prove it's a good translation.
Again, I disagree that it is not a good translation but whatever. Not sure what the ! is about.
'A fine lady' is indeed en fin dam in Swedish.
But the fin in this sentence does not mean the same thing as the fin in en fin dam.
So? What I said was that fin in en fin klänning and en fin dam do not mean the same thing. Which means that en fin dam = a fine lady does not prove that en fin klänning is also a fine dress.
I'm confused. Fine is positive depending on the way it is stressed.
Think : "Girl that dress is fine" with the stress on fine and a slight exaggeration of the "i" vs. "That dress is just fine." which is usually said more monotone.
Yes, but fin is more something in between beautiful and nice, whereas fine is either OK (as in 'not damaged') or more like excellent, of superior quality.
Actually, it can meant beautiful or hot - which is what I meant with the first example. It's more slangy so I'm not necessarily advocating it's inclusion but it definitely is used the same way.
Sorry, I didn't think about the more slangy meaning, I just thought about the two normal ones. I'm mainly just worried people are going to start equating fin with fine when there is actually a difference in meaning.