"How does one get to the beach?"
Translation:Hur kommer man till stranden?
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822
I'm a native speaker, and the actual translation of the sentence above is: "Hur tar man sig till stranden?" Both translations make sense idiomatically though.
1526
Like when Pippi was asked if she ate with a knife and fork. She replied, "I eat the old fashioned way... with my mouth."
1476
In English if you asked "how does one get to the beach" instead of "how do I.." or "how do you..." get to the beach, you'd probably sound pompous and posh. I'm wondering if it's the same in Swedish with "hur kommer man till stranden" instead of "Hur kommer jag till stranden"
1476
When I first saw this sentence I thought of The Admirable Crichton. "How does one get off this beach?" :)
2733
ar det okej att saga "hur far man till stranden?" (sorry for the lack of special simbols)
Well, that sentence has no diacritics. :) The word far means "travel", so you can say that in the right context. It does sound a bit silly, though - like "how does one travel to the beach?"
Since you mentioned symbols, though, I suspect you wanted to ask about får - as that means "get". This cannot be used here: it only means "get" as in "receive" or "be allowed".
822
Anyone would understand what you meant if you asked that, but in Swedish "man" is most commonly used in this context (both formally and informally, e.g. "how do YOU get to" and "how does ONE get to").
822
No, and that would make it obvious that you are not a native speaker. When asking a question the word order is reversed in Swedish. (E.g. the statement "Du bor i huset." becomes the question "Bor du i huset?")