"Nosotras no la consideramos comida."
Translation:We do not consider it food.
the answers have two different meanings and yet I do not see where the it or her are implied in the original sentence
If you are referring to "la" that is 'it' in the given sentence. It's feminine because the noun it refers to is feminine. ('la' could be her but not in this instance).Hope this helps.
The only problem I have with this explanation is that the person is saying that "it" is NOT food. Therefore, why should there be agreement between "la" ("it") and "comida"? If there were an option for it, I'd be inclined to use the equivalent of "eso" or "esto" - that is, a non-gender pronoun.
I don't think "la" is referring to "comida". For example, if we don't consider a cow (la vaca) to be food, we would use "la", but if we don't consider a dog (el perro) to be food we would use "lo".
You're right. I do have to say that I think it's unfair that DL forces us to use a neutral pronoun when there is no context, and yet it uses whatever pronoun it feels like.
In my experience with DL it does NOT force us to use a neutral (did you mean masculine?) pronoun when there is no context. In other words, for me it usually accepts any "correct" answer as long as it does not go against the provided context. But anyway.
Why not we do not consider it to be food. A very standard English way of expressing this.
Because "We do not consider it food" is not wrong; it's not archaic or weird; it's a perfectly normal English sentence. And also, Spanish has a way to say what you wrote, along the lines of "Nosotros no consideramos que sea la comida."
In general, Duolingo favors exact translations, unless the words have entirely the wrong meaning when translated literally: "me gusta" doesn't work in English when translated word by word, for instance. Otherwise, you start to wade into connotations and subjective 'feel', and no one can agree on the one right way to do everything. DL is all about 'good enough'.
Thank you. I am having a hard time getting the right feel for how literal a translation should be. Many times the literal translation is perfectly understandable to a native speaker, but not what one would say. I realize that the most literal seems to be preferred, but word order in English and Spanish are different. If I use English word order with Spanish words, I am not really speaking Spanish, but English, with Spanish words. Likewise, if we keep Spanish word order in our translations, we are not really writing English. Do we prefer to stick to the Spanish word order in translations? What constitutes a sentence in Spanish does not seem to correspond to a sentence in English oftentimes.
The "-as" ending here indicates that the speakers ("we") are all-female. No difference otherwise.
Hilariously, "We do not consider her food" is also accepted.
10/10, would translate again.
consideramos = third person plural PRESENT tense. consideramos = third person plural PAST tense.
Is the present tense the default for a third person plural verb, when the form, (spelling), of the past and present tense are the same? Is present tense the default, is there a default?
That's first person plural actually. I think most verbs with the "-ar" ending have identical first person plural past and present. "hablar" - "hablamos", which is present and past. There is no default (I don't think). Think of the English verb "beat". "I beat you" could be past or present. You could add, "I beat you every day" to make it present, or you could add, "I beat you yesterday" to make it past.
And what analysis of the sentence leads you to believe it is past tense, what do the other words, and the structure of the sentence provide that gives you an indication it is past tense. If ... both words are spelled the same, then ... something else in the sentence indicates it is past tense, or ... it is both, and only the context of the present moment when using it in real life could indicate the tense, yes?
I would think so. Although sometimes you might assume a certain tense if there is no context, so maybe you could say there is a "default." Going back to the "beat" example, if someone said, "We beat him up" I would assume that the past tense was applied if no context was provided. Perhaps this sometimes occurs with Spanish verbs as well.
"We don't" and "we didn't" do something is conjugated the same for most verbs. So its perfectly fine translation here.
If you are talking about some meal, like pork, it would be like: - ¿Te gusta la carne de cerdo? - No, nosotros (as) no lo consideramos comida. Because "pork" is male.
When do you use "nosotros" versus "nosotras"? Is it when "we" refers to all females?
"We" can mean: "nosotros" (all males) , "nosotras" (all females) & "nosotros" (both females and males together).
how about nosotras no lo consideramos comida. that is lo instead of la, can anyone explain?