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"No habíamos establecido reglas."

Translation:We had not established rules.

5 years ago

26 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/LukeHoltom
LukeHoltom
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Any reason "We had not established the rules" would be rejected? The meaning is the same but it sounds more natural with the to me.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Hacu.
Hacu.
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In a way, "the rules" sound like something specific (it does have the definitive article); something that was done later on and are now being pointed at. Without the article it sounds (to me) more like something that never got done.

"We had not established rules" ... "and that's why everything started going south. In the end the whole idea dried out before it even properly started. Maybe things could've been different, if we had a clear set of rules and everyone new where the lines were drawn. The more people, the more important that all are on the same page."

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/magicstrategist

1 year later, and still the same problem apparently. I recall when they used this same sentence in the present tense, and "the rules" was accepted.

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mathchoo

I do not know if this helps, but I got a suggested answer of "We had not established any rules" , which has a different meaning than "the rules"

7 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Majklo_Blic
Majklo_Blic
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...y ahora jugaremos Calvinball.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rosapollock

It is correct English to say, we had not established the rules.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mortisimago
mortisimago
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It seems so strange that the Spanish text - where they so often want to use articles where we do not - doesn't use one where we would like to

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Kai_Guy

How would you differentiate this from "We had no established rules" ?

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Daniel.Luke

No teníamos reglas establecidas.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/talideon
talideon
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"no tuvímos reglas establecidas"

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PenuelX

Close, but tuvimos is preterite past tense (stopped and/or ended at a particular point in time). It would be teniamos (with an accent mark on the i) because teniamos is the imperfect past tense of tener (happened over an indefinite period in time).

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/PenuelX

I meant started instead of stopped. I can't edit on my tablet.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Daniel.Luke

"We hadn't set any rules" should be 100% correct.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DiyaJayram

What is the difference between rulers and rules in spanish?

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jean1964

Ditto

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Daniel239232

My "We had not established the rules" was rejected too

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/jaredlarlham1

what's the difference between W & w?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Gustavo92526

That's exactly why people need safety words.

4 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dr-Pen
Dr-Pen
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My answer "We did not established the rules" was rejected. I'm sorry, but my natural grammatical upbringing forces me to put a "the" in there.

Why is Duolingo so picky and inconsistent with their answers?

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/rspreng

'We did not established' is not correct English, and habiamos = had, not did

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ken.goodwi

My quetion would be should the rules be an acceptable translation to english? We had not established rules and we had not established the rules seem to carry the same meaning. I am still having a hard time determining when dl wants literal and when they want implied.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/talideon
talideon
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The problem here is that the use of definite articles differs slightly between Spanish and English. Spanish requires it more, but if there's a situation where it's not required in Spanish, then it's almost certainly not required in English. Spanish requires definite articles for lots of conceptual nouns whereas English does not, for example 'nature' and 'space'. The key is to learn where Spanish requires the definite article because English is pretty sparing in its use.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DaryaKrym

so in spanish if an aricle is put in front of rules i.e. "las reglas". would that be wrong? or would it change the meaning?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dr-Pen
Dr-Pen
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Well, some of these Spanish-to-English translations didn't make much sense to me anyway so it seemed like the right move at the time.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/mujeranciana

For the most part, in English, when speaking of particular objects rather than objects in general, insertion of articles is expected. If one says "Do we have rules?" meaning are there any such of any kind at all, ones does not use the article. If one says, "We have not established ... rules", one is speaking of particular rules and insertion of "the" is expected - whether it is used in the Spanish sentence or not.

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Dovyuruk
Dovyuruk
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So, I ensured he fell on the knife so that I could take his chocolate ;)

3 years ago