How would this be used in a conversation, unless it is normally accepted and used in Spanish-speaking countries? "Sir, would you care to order an appetizer before your meal?" Why yes...yes I would. I am going to have a hat. (Say WHAT?!)
I was wondering that myself. I suspect sometimes that Duolingo grabs sentences from wherever, but then strips off "extraneous" parts of the sentence that make them actually make sense. "Are you going to wear a hat to the wedding?" "Yes, I am going to have a blue hat with peacock feathers."
When my lost luggage is delivered next week, I am going to have a hat. Right now, I don't have one.
Don't forget to put sunscreen on your ears, its going to be really hot tomorrow.
Pfff mom! I'm going to have a hat.
in previous example, sentence was very similar - "No vamos a tener casa" and the article "una" was not used BUT in this case ".......UN sombrero" the article"un" WAS used - is it arbitrary, is it because it's masculine not feminine, is it because it is affirmative and not negative??
Well spotted and I too wondered that. It kind of blows the whole theory of dropping the 'una' in the previous sentence.
Sometimes it IS optional, but never because of gender or because of being a negative or a positive statement.
How to make a Sombrero:
Ingredients 1-1/2 ounces Coffee Liqueur 1 ounce Half-and-Half
Directions Fill a tall cocktail glass with ice and then add the coffee liqueur. Slowly stir the ice and liqueur for about 15 seconds and then carefully float the cream by pouring it over the back of a bar spoon and into the drink. Serve immediately.
Why couldnt this be translated to "I am going to get a hat", which is a bit more sensical in English?
I dunno - sombrero is a type of hat - we call a sombrero a sombrero in the US. Don't feel like it needs translation. Baseball caps are called "gorros"
Would you use this phrase when meeting someone for the first time? ie. "I'll be across the counter; I am going to have a blue hat"
Because the verb "ir" is conjugated into the 1st person "voy", so it is immediately followed by the infinitive "tener". As a rule in both languages if you need to have two verbs in a row, a to-infinitive verb follows a conjugated verb (the -er, -ar and -ir on the end of a Spanish verb is the "to" at the beginning of our infinitive). For example.
"I want (conjugated verb) to eat (to infinitive)" = "quiero (conjugated) comer (infinitive)"
"They want to meet you" = te quieren encontrar
If you want to conjugate "tener" into future 1st person tense, it would be "tendré".
Does that make sense?
There is a slow dawn happening within my brain. Ha. I can't see the forest for the trees. There are so many exceptions to the rule, it becomes quite intimidating to try to form a sentence. Thank you for your time and help!
Tengo un sombrero = I have a hat
Voy a tenir un sombrero = I am going to have a hat.
Similar meaning, the difference is in the diction.
One of the definitions of "tener" is "to get" so I said: "I am going to get a hat", not because I didn't know that tener = to have, but because my translation made more sense in ENGLISH. The language I was asked to translate the phrase. I reported this but it's very frustrating when it doesn't accept reasonable English translations. "I am going to have a hat" makes no sense in English unless one is shopping or admiring a hat on someone else.
You were interpreting connotatively, not translating literally, which is what DL prefers.
this set of exercises is little more than a repeat of the dreadfully tedious set of ten future ("going to do something") exercises that we endured a while back - and is just as obscure and just as poorly composed.
Hear, hear! I keep waiting for some variety, but am rapidly becoming disillusioned. So bored I might practice my Welsh in a moment.
This makes no sense! One of the options was get, as in I'm going to get a hat, and I chose this as it was closest in sensible meaning, yet I was apparently wrong. And now I can't even return to the questions. I've had it duolingo, get it together!
The male voice audio does not have a slow speed. This is true of more than one exercise. The female voice audio has both speeds.
In a previous lesson, the article una was not present after tener. Can anyone shed some light on why the article is present here and not in the other lesson? I believe the previous lesson was: "No vamos a tener casa."
Could you translate "sombrero" as sunhat? That was my thought but I chickened out at the last moment.
It is my understanding that in Spanish since most people don't have many houses, we needn't say "a" house. Saying "we are not going to have house" is fully understood. (That not being the case in regards to hats.)
As two others asked, but no answer yet, why in the previous example una was not need before casa, but un is used here in front of sombrero.
Not a native speaker, but that's a particularity of the word "casa". My impression is that "una casa" is more like "a house", while "casa" alone is more like "home". So e.g. "Voy a la casa" = "I'm going to the house"; "Voy a casa" = "I'm going home".
The English and Spanish don't line up word for word here. To express future in English we use "I am going to (infinitive)" rather than "I go to (infinitive)." So you would never say "I go to have a hat," even though it appears to match the Spanish more closely.
In the English translation? No querida, that doesn't make sense (I going to have a hat). That is, unless we are all misunderstanding the Spanish sentence, and it means "I am going on my way to buy a hat". Vale, ahora yo no comprendo.
It is my understanding that when you would be likely to have only one - eg "casa" - you can omit the indefinite article, but in all other cases you put in the article.
En español se usa más: Voy a comprar, me van a regalar; en vez de Voy a tener...