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  5. "He does not know it either."

"He does not know it either."

Translation:Det vet inte han heller.

February 22, 2015



What's the difference between 'det vet inte han hellerä and 'han vet inte det heller'?


I explained that in my first comment on this page, the one that starts with "In this case …"


In both those sentences han is in the middle. Does it make any difference if it's at the start?


Ah, sorry, I missed that. I'm too tired at the moment, shouldn't have answered in the first place. So if you put him first, in
Han vet inte det heller you get the situation where 'He does not know fact X, and he does not know det either'
and in
Han vet inte heller det, you get 'Person X does not know it, and 'he' does not know it either'

So why put han first?

The main reason to rearrange word order is usually what information structure we want. Generally, we prefer to go from what is known to what is not known, this is called the information principle. Very roughly, sentences tend to put known things in the beginning, and new things in the end.
Now, in this case, han is a pronoun, so we can assume the listener knows who 'he' is. But det is also a pronoun, and we can assume that the listener knows what 'it' refers to, too.

So I'd say Han vet inte det heller and Det vet han inte heller are very close, it's just a matter of how you want to stress or present things.

Between Det vet inte han heller and Han vet inte det heller, there is both the difference of presentation and the other difference I mentioned.


Thank you. Your answers are always very helpful.


Does anyone know when are the elections in Sweden? I'll vote Arnauti for being the next King of Sweden, hahahahaha


Thanks a lot for that detailed information. Much appreciated


Thanks for the explanation, it's exsactly what i wss looking for


That message is now, as this is your first comment on this topic.


I should follow my own advice and read all comments before writing anything. :-/


Is "det vet han inte heller" really a faulty sentence or does it have a different meaning?


That's what I wrote and it was marked as correct.


Why does 'inte' come before 'han'? Could anyone explain the rule please? I thought it would be just 'Det vet han into heller.' Thanks.


In this case it depends on what inte is negating.
Det vet inte han heller = Person X does not know it, and 'he' does not know it either
Det vet han inte heller = 'He' does not know fact X, and he does not know det (the thing that the sentence refers to) either


But how is one to get from the English sentence starting with 'he' that 'it' is what is to be negated? And why can't the Swedish sentence at least also start with 'han'?


This structure doesn't make the tiniest bit of sense to me. Why is Det the noun instead of Han? It doesn't know him either? What?! Shouldn't it be Han vet inte heller? I now loathe the "assemble the phrase" exercises, they go for the most obscure structures.


In this case the stress is on the "that/it". As in "That I do not know, either." However, I agree with you that this is not obvious when all we see is the English sentence "He does not know it, either."


Agreed... I still do not get it :/


It is not him (honom) it is he (han). Han is a subject pronoun. So it is the subject of the sentence.


Why is antningen incorrect?


antingen is only used in the combination antingen – eller, which means 'either – or', so it doesn't fit here.

[deactivated user]

    What determines when you use 'vet' as opposed to 'känner'?


    vet is to know a fact, känner is to know, be aquainted with a person


    I feel likethe subject and object have been switched in this sentence???


    Is it correct to say ¨han vet heller inte det¨?


    Is it also possible to say: Han vet det inte heller?


    If this helps anyone, I kind of look at this one as "that he does not know either" helps me remember and wrap my head round it abit. Obviously please correct me if i'm wrong. :)


    when can you use "ej" instead of "inte"?


    Whenever you like, same with icke but icke is old-fashioned and ej is mostly used in formal situations or for announcements and on signs and such.

    Ej is however seemingly preferred in certain expressions, such as "tro det eller ej".


    I am really confused about the grammar for 'vet' in relation to 'det'. Can anyone explain this? I find it difficult to learn how to structure these sentences :'(


    That's actually pretty easy – it's just that the verb has to go in second place in the sentence. So if you put det first, the verb vet goes after it, and if you put han first, the verb also goes right after that. Basically vet just stays put in second place whatever you change in the rest of the sentence.


    So the first time I used (in the wrong order, I admit) "inte", but the suggested answer used the word "ej". The second time I used "ej" and was marked wrong for not using "Inte". Make up your mind, eh?


    Isn't "Han vet det heller inte" a viable option, too?


    What's wrong with Han känner inte det heller?


    Känner is for knowing people, not facts.


    I see you're quite advanced in German. The "jag vet" vs "jag känner" scenario is exactly the same as "ich weiß" vs "ich kenne". I hope this helps.


    Why can´t I say, Han vet inte det heller.....


    Why is 'Den vet han inte heller' marked as incorrect?


    So, I got as far as the V2 rule, but why is this incorrect: "Det vet han eller inte?"


    I believe because "inte" modifies the verb, it has to come much closer, not at the very end.


    Yeah this still makes no sense. It looks like the "it" is the thing that is not knowing him. Like if the " it" were a monster and the monster didn't know the him.


    It knows not him either? Svenska word order is making me nuts.


    "it know him not either" this one really messes me up

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