Translation:He has not walked since he was sick.
I copied this very helpful tip from http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7226/desde-desde-hace-desde-que-hace, the answer provided by lazarus1907
"The difference is that "desde" is one word, and "desde hace" are two words, where the first is also "desde". It is like asking what is the difference between "from" and "from where". Each word has its own use and meaning, and when you put them together, you mean more things or you get extra uses.
"Desde" means "since". "Hace" is untranslatable in English, and it used to indicate a certain amount of time that has passed. "Que" in this case is "that", a conjunction that it is often omitted in English (and sometimes not used), that introduces subordinate clauses (more verbs): you say "since you came" and not "since that you came", which would be the correct Spanish version.
Desde + [time/place reference] = since: desde ayer, desde aquí,... Desde que + [verb] = since : desde que viniste (since you came), desde que me casé (since I got married) Hace + [length of time] = [length of time] ago: Me casé hace dos años (I got married two years ago). Hace + [length of time] + que + [verb] = [verb] for [length of time]: Hace dos años que no fumo (I haven't smoked for two years) Desde hace + [length of time] = for [length of time]: No fumo desde hace dos años (I haven't smoked for two years)"
He has not walked since he GOT sick. Anyone see a problem with this translation. It's what I would say as a Texan, but maybe it's not acceptable in other parts of the country? Not sure if I should report. . .
Why is "He has not walked since he was ill" not an accepted translation? Anybody?
People still say ill instead of sick. Since I'm still in the lesson, I'll report this for you, because it certainly should be accepted.
Why is QUE needed in the above sentence. I understand that spanish to english isnt always "word for word" translations, but Im sure ive seen similar sentences where the QUE wasnt used. Please explain. Thanks
I was told that in English we often omit the word "that" but in Spanish "que" is always used when it is implied.
Thank you PaulineAnn. But how is QUE(THAT) implied? He has not walked since (that)? he was sick. Does not make sense to me. Why am i wrong? Gracias
I think here the two words "desde que" mean "since", so my previous explanation was not right. I found this site helpful, but long. It does not seem to be straight forward! Hope it helps. http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7226/desde-desde-hace-desde-que-hace
Because of "being sick" I estuvo is a past tense, not a gerund. "Since he was sick" would match the tense used in spanish better
It seems to me that perhaps "estaba" would have been a more appropriate choice than "estuvo." Anybody?
In the new format, not all answers are visible on the screen. The correct answer (for me, #6) was below the visible portion of the screen -- and I could not scroll down to see it. This format must change.
Sorry that you (and others!) are having trouble. This is the kind of issue you should report by clicking on the flag, so the right people see it. Unfortunately we can't help you here. Try on a desk top computer. (And I know you'll lose what you've done. Consider it extra practice!)
Shouldn't this be "since he became sick? or "since he fell ill?" "Was sick" implies that he no longer is sick but that's not necessarily the case. I'm assuming that he hasn't walked since the beginning of the illness because that makes logical sense but the English is ambiguous. Is this a problem in the Spanish original or just in the English translation?
I put hasnt and got it wrong because it wanted has not. It should not be wrong. Just saying.
The programme won't offer me the correct option and I have tried about 10 times. Unfortunately you can't skip on to the next section until all questions are correctly answered so you can't do anything You're stuck. I've reported it about 5 times. What can I do?
the correct answer is below screen and can't school down. thus can't finish this without losing exercise
The only available answers are #1-4 and #6-9. The right answer caminado is not shown
caminado is not offered as a possible answer and thus I can not complete the section
Because we are supposed to be doing the lesson exercise that is constructed with the Spanish -ido, -ado verb endings, preceded by the he, has, ha, etc., helper verbs.
They are translated in English with the past tense preceded by the conjugations of the helping verb "have." "I/you (singular) HAVE WALKED, he/she/it HAS WALKED, etc.
They say it is to indicate something done in the past that is still ongoing, like if you asked a man at a bus stop, for example, why he rides the bus, and he answers: "I have walked to this bus stop every week for five years, while I saved money to buy a car. I will have enough money to buy the one I want in two more months!" :-)
Chris, the above message was an answer for you; sorry I omited your name, and hope the post wasn't too old! If it was, maybe it will help someone else.