Translation:He has not walked since he was sick.
I copied this very helpful tip from http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7226/desde-desde-hace-desde-que-hace, the answer provided by lazarus1907
"The difference is that "desde" is one word, and "desde hace" are two words, where the first is also "desde". It is like asking what is the difference between "from" and "from where". Each word has its own use and meaning, and when you put them together, you mean more things or you get extra uses.
"Desde" means "since". "Hace" is untranslatable in English, and it used to indicate a certain amount of time that has passed. "Que" in this case is "that", a conjunction that it is often omitted in English (and sometimes not used), that introduces subordinate clauses (more verbs): you say "since you came" and not "since that you came", which would be the correct Spanish version.
Desde + [time/place reference] = since: desde ayer, desde aquí,... Desde que + [verb] = since : desde que viniste (since you came), desde que me casé (since I got married) Hace + [length of time] = [length of time] ago: Me casé hace dos años (I got married two years ago). Hace + [length of time] + que + [verb] = [verb] for [length of time]: Hace dos años que no fumo (I haven't smoked for two years) Desde hace + [length of time] = for [length of time]: No fumo desde hace dos años (I haven't smoked for two years)"
Sick and ill are both used slightly differently in British vs American usage (I think both carry a sense of being gastric-ly unwell, where "unwell" or "poorly" would be used for other types of illness. I am not British, so trust but verify!) Anyway, it is possible that ill was not accepted because of that sense of "gastric unwell" - but your English version sounds OK to me in US English. Report it?
I think here the two words "desde que" mean "since", so my previous explanation was not right. I found this site helpful, but long. It does not seem to be straight forward! Hope it helps. http://www.spanishdict.com/answers/7226/desde-desde-hace-desde-que-hace
Sorry that you (and others!) are having trouble. This is the kind of issue you should report by clicking on the flag, so the right people see it. Unfortunately we can't help you here. Try on a desk top computer. (And I know you'll lose what you've done. Consider it extra practice!)
Shouldn't this be "since he became sick? or "since he fell ill?" "Was sick" implies that he no longer is sick but that's not necessarily the case. I'm assuming that he hasn't walked since the beginning of the illness because that makes logical sense but the English is ambiguous. Is this a problem in the Spanish original or just in the English translation?
Because we are supposed to be doing the lesson exercise that is constructed with the Spanish -ido, -ado verb endings, preceded by the he, has, ha, etc., helper verbs.
They are translated in English with the past tense preceded by the conjugations of the helping verb "have." "I/you (singular) HAVE WALKED, he/she/it HAS WALKED, etc.
They say it is to indicate something done in the past that is still ongoing, like if you asked a man at a bus stop, for example, why he rides the bus, and he answers: "I have walked to this bus stop every week for five years, while I saved money to buy a car. I will have enough money to buy the one I want in two more months!" :-)