Translation:I am the one who will miss his voice.
It sounds like a line from a Hollywood melodrama, circa 1939. A woman is alone in her mansion. Her lover has just left for the war. She stares out the window, tears in her eyes, and says, "He is the one who marches off to his glorious war, but I....I am the one who will miss his voice."
This is how I'd interpret it:
"I will miss the sound of his voice [but nobody else will care]"
I'd say your interpretation would do as well. There's no explaining it clearly because it lacks context. I imagine people discussing banishing someone from a community and they're just throwing their feelings out on the table ...
No, you can not. because the verb "manquer" comes with the meaning of "to be missing/missed". So, if you want to say "I miss you", you should think it in a sense of "you are missing inside me" - "tu me manques".
"I miss your voice" - "Ta voix me manque" (Your voice is missing, I long for your voice.)
So if you say "Je suis celui à qui vais manqer sa voix" you mean "i am the one who your voice will miss me". It doesn't make sense. I hope it helps.
Okay, I'm not exactly sure of this, but it makes sense.
So, when you translate this sentence literally, it's,
"I'm the one to/by whom his/her voice will be missed." Hence the à.
And, so, you could rephrase it into,
"I'm the one whom his/her voice will be missed by."
And that's in the same sense if you want to say , "I will miss his/her voice." you say, "Sa voix va me manquer." which could also be literally translated into, "His/her voice will be missed by me." Get what I'm trying to say? :)
Hope that makes sense. :/ :)
"I'm the one whom his voice will be missed by" falls between two stools" the first being the correctness of using 'whom' to correspond to 'by'; the other is the grammatical howler of distancing 'by to the end of the sentence where it looks like a clumsy afterthought, and an embarrassment.
How about: "I, for one, will miss his voice." The expression "I, for one, ..." is a common way to express emphasis, in American English at least. Duolingo rejected it (as I expected), but I don't want to report my answer as correct because I'm not sure that's what "je suis celui" is getting at.
Can you explain why sa voix must be understood to be a male voice when grammatically it is only the word voice which is female, and the person who produces it could be of either gender? I know the prompts in an earlier translation exercise compelled the use of 'his' voice, but that should not justify condemnation of the use of 'her' voice in a lter challenge. Am I just quibbling? Or are you just a robot, duolingo?
If I am right, I will accept a compensatory payment of 5, 000,000 lingots, and consider the matter closed.
This link explains everything one needs to know about the verb 'manquer' : https://www.thoughtco.com/french-verb-manquer-1368876
Thank you! That was very useful. Now I know that "manquer" is a weird verb. It can mean both "to miss" and "to be missed by," so you have to use contextual clues to figure out what is meant in a particular sentence.
In this case, the "à qui" is crucial because that means that instead of just meaning "miss," "manque" now means "is missed by" and the "a qui" is telling you that I'm the one doing the "missing." It really is bizarre to English ears.