Translation:That woman was loved by her husband.
But there isn't much difference in meaning between them is there? I think I had a similar question where it was multiple choice and it marked me as being incorrect for not choosing both options.
It must have been updated since I did the exercise. I usually report it if I think it should be accepted. Glad to know DL listens :-)
Yes, DL does their best. I read somewhere that they receive thousands of submissions every day, so it must be quite a chore to sift through them all.
And every time I've received an email that one of my suggestions was accepted, it's from Rémy. Always Rémy. He must be very busy.
I've had other approvers than Remy, but yes, he's the most prolific! Sitesurf has done some of this work, too.
And we enjoy all their efforts for free. Thank you owl people, all of you. ..and all the posters and reporters too.
I guess DL did listen...I've had some of my own problems with it. I don't know if it listened to me...
Why isn't it "a été aimée de son mari"? In another sentence de was used after aimé(e)... >.<
With verbs regarding like/dislike/respect, etc., either "par" or "de" may be used.
I think it's just that we don't use the passive voice that much so it sounds a bit odd when we do. Good writers and good editors discourage its use, but it's helpful to know it and recognize it when we see it.
Can this imply the notion that this particular woman has recently been loved by her husband? As in something the neighbors from downstairs might have observed...?
No, nothing like that. In terms of love/like/respect, it does not refer to a specific event.
Shouldn't it be in the imparfait then? It seems odd to use the passe compose with a feeling like love.
If it is appropriate to ask here, how would one refer to the act of love making in French, without vulgarity?
Does this sentence imply that she is no longer loved? Or is her state of being loved still ongoing?
The answer "That woman has been loved by her husband" implies it's in the imperfect tense, no? In which case wouldn't the french be "Cette femme était aimé par son mari"
The English words in exercise can only form "...has been loved by her husband" but is seems strange to me. The usage of perfect means that this is still the case, but I've never heard perfect being used in this context, rather simple "is loved". I could maybe understand "has been loved by her husband for the last 20 years" though it's still not quite natural. Alternatively it could mean that at some point she has indeed received love from her husband but since love is not an event it still sounds strange ("she has been beaten by her husband" would work for example since one event is all that matters)
There is a note in tips and notes which states "........... the agent of a verb in the passive voice can be introduced by the preposition par ("by"). However, you should use "de" with verbs expressing emotions or feelings, like aimer or respecter.
As in "La princesse est aimée de ses amis. — The princess is loved by her friends"
SO why in this example is "par" being used?
I'm interested that "aimee" follows the gender and number of the subject of the sentence even with an avoir verb conjugation. Does the passive sentence cause the subject to become effectively the object in this case for purposes of agreement?
There's something wrong with this sentence: I wrote the right answer in English several times, but it was counted as a wrong answer, though there was no difference between my version and their version. Finally, just to finish the exercise, I changed "that" to "this" and then it was accepted with a comment: "another translation", which was exactly the same I wrote first!
I don't understand why this is in the perfect at all. Surely he loved her continuously in the past? And if you say, ah but she died so he stopped, all actions, such as the famous letters that were read by all the family elsewhere in this section, have also stopped being read as they were in the past and some of them are dead too by now, probably.
Surely the given translation should be " That woman has been loved by her husband" ?
In another exercise aimé was followed by "de", but in this exercise aimee is followed by "par". I thought that "state of being "verbs required "de" and action verbs required "par,"....I'm so frustrated. I cant get these things right, and I'm trying so i can converse with my French-speaking grandchildren