"We are out of raspberries."

Translation:Hallonen är slut.

March 4, 2015

This discussion is locked.


If we are referring to raspberries plural, why is it slut, not sluta?


Because "slut" is uninflected -- it doesn't change for gender/number.


Can you not say vi har inga hallon?


same question. Moderators?


Yes, but it means "We have no raspberries."


I answered "vi har inga hallon kvar". Is it too far from the expected answer?


No, I'll add that. Though I should note for learners reading this that it's not quite as direct a translation as the default.


Is this referring to if it was on a sign or in a store? If not, why is "we" assumed.


It could very well be. It could also be that we as e.g. our household are out of raspberries, just like the other day when I was making some waffles only to find out that my wife had eaten all of our berries. At least there was some maple syrup left for me.

I'm guessing that the we is an effort to use a standard expression with which people are generally familiar. The verb vara slut means that there are none left, but English lacks a good verb for this. And "there are no more raspberries" doesn't quite work for pedagogical reasons, since the translation for that into Swedish would be "det finns inga fler hallon".

One of the owlmods could probably add to the discussion or correct me if needed.


I agree with what you're saying. I wrote something about this in another forum, in that case, specifically about why the thing we're out of is indeterminate in the Swedish construction, but determinate in the English: https://www.duolingo.com/comment/6058122

If we were for instance in a store that was out of raspberries we could still say Hallonen är slut, but it would be They are out of raspberries in English. So as you said, we just picked the most standard expression.


Why not "hallon"? It doesn't say THE raspberries.


Vadym, in English you can say either of the following:
1. The raspberries are all gone.
2. We are out of raspberries.
In the English you cannot omit "the" in 1, and in this context you would not add "the" in 2.

The Swedish we are given here is more directly a translation of the English sentence 1 above than the English sentence 2. Like English 1, the Swedish uses a definite construction.

Notice that the English we were given first uses the word "we", whereas the Swedish we are given does not use "vi". That's a sure sign that the Swedish being given is not a literal translation.

In sum, there is no reason, either in English or in Swedish, to expect or accept "Raspberries are all gone" instead of "The raspberries are all gone".


However, if you were differentiating between raspberries and something else, you might very well use 'the' in 2.


Why is it literally translated as "The raspberries are stop"? Is that common phrasing in Swedish?


The literal translation of "slut" here is not "stop". The word "slut" here is not a noun or a verb (which is what "stop" would be in English). Rather, "slut" is an adjective here meaning "gone" or "at an end" or "exhausted".

The adjective "slut" is a predicate adjective only. That is, it cannot appear in front of a noun like an ordinary adjective, but only in the predicate position after the verb.


Can you say "Vi är slut på hallon?"


No, it's always har slut.


Oh I see, so "Vi har slut på hallon" should work?


"Vi har slut på hallon", is more correct to "we are out of raspberries" then "hallonen är slut". Direct translation would be "Raspberries are out". - Native swede

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