"Mis ojos no han visto eso."

Translation:My eyes have not seen that.

5 years ago

16 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/kassandra8286
kassandra8286
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"My eyes have not seen that"? Really? I'm curious, would anyone actually use this expression in Spanish, as opposed to simply "No he visto eso"? It sounds like something from the King James version of the Bible.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

It sounds the same way in Spanish XD Maybe in a novel or something similar, but definetely not something we say in daily conversation.

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/kassandra8286
kassandra8286
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Thanks, Babella! :)

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Babella

You are welcome ;]

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/SD-77
SD-77
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My eyes have not yet seen the glory of Atlantis!

5 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/howcheng
howcheng
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I like how the alternative translations for "ojos" is "layer of fat".

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/learnTACO32

Why not LOS OJOS ? I have seen many examples of OJOS(eyes) used with the article "LOS." Why is this above sample sample different? And when do I use MIS vs. LOS? Thanks

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/aboyer02
aboyer02
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I am not positive, but if it did not say 'mis ojos' we would not know who didn't see.

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Huysan
Huysan
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My theory: It can be LOS OJOS (the eyes). But in this sentence, it's MIS OJOS (my eyes).

4 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/ladyhaiti

I'm also curious as to why the possessive is used in this sentence. what I learned from my Spanish professor is that in Spanish body parts are always referred to as "los" versus "mis". maybe it's a regional thing.

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/maddiebean12

I'm not totally sure, but I'm assuming (like aboyer02 above) that since it's more of an abstract sentence, it's not referring to the actual anatomy of the person talking.

I think it's talking more about a visual experience (such as looking at earth from space), rather than seeing something in the literal sense (in which case it would refer to the actual function of eyes).

So, since this sentence seems to be talking about personal experience, it's only natural that they would use the possessive "mis."

This was a long-winded answer and it could be totally incorrect, but it's my theory. :) Hope it helps!

3 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/KenHigh

Not using the possessive with body parts is more of a guideline than a fixed rule. In this sentence, it was necessary to use the possessive to identify who's eyes are being talked about.

The situations where the possessive is not used often have an indirect object pronoun elsewhere in the sentence which indicates the person being affected. Example:

Me duelen los ojos. --- My eyes hurt.
Le duelen los ojos. --- His / her eyes hurt.
Te duelen los ojos. --- Your eyes hurt.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/--WinterBreeze--

Cause I'm blind! (just kidding)

2 years ago

https://www.duolingo.com/dario496959

why not : "my eyes did not see that" ?

1 year ago

https://www.duolingo.com/Adriano732737

It is a nice, perhaps lyrical phrase though. Also I can imagine a couple of football (soccer) pedants discussing whether it was hand ball or not in the penalty area.

2 months ago

https://www.duolingo.com/DavidMoore622957

Also, in English we say things like "I haven't laid (my) eyes on him in years." Sometimes, idiomatic expressions sound odd when interpreted literally.

1 month ago
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