"¿Cuántas ausencias tienes?"
Translation:How many absences do you have?
I agree susanvg. The sentence construction and the sense of it may be understandable in Spanish but the possession of an absence is illogical in English.
No, not true. I am a native speaker and I would say, "How many absences do you have?"
Yeah, I agree that to be absent seems like more common usage than to have an absence. But I don't think to have an absence is illogical. Especially if you're talking about attendance statistics. If throughout the year you miss class 3 times then you have 3 absences. You've been absent 3 times. It's all the same. I'm not batting an eyelash either way.
In some jobs you're allotted a certain amount of absences before you're penalized for it. If I just got a job, it would be correct for my friend to ask me the question; "¿Cuántas ausencias tienes?" Asking in the past perfect tense would imply that I have already been absent.
No not true. I am a native English speaker and I use the present tense for this sentence almost every day when I text my girlfriend. In her case it is "lates". She is allowed 5 lates each month. So I often ask her "How many lates do you have?" If she has 5, then I encourage her to be on time. If she has 0, then I say good girl good job.
Maybe it is speaking to a teacher or class??. In that case you would have many absences at a present moment... not really clear as absence could be a thing collected over time for one person(how many absences do you have [on the record]), but is colloquial, not proper english, but is it proper spanish?
so is this meant to be in the present tense....or in the past tense like we'd say colloquially treating absence like some grade you collect as you go on?
"How many absences have you had?" changes some context. This means that the person has had absences in the past, but (s)he doesn't have them anymore. When asking "How many absences do you have?" you do not imply that the person has absences, so they can answer the question with the word "None.
As far as I've been able to figure it out, the bot allows a one-letter misspelling as long as 1) it doesn't create a different word, and 2) it doesn't change the gender of the ending. But more than one letter wrong isn't accepted. There may also be allowable and non-allowable letter substitutions, accepting T for C and B for V for example, but I'm not sure about that.
I feel that not only is 'How many absences have you had?' more natural, but it is also just one example among many of the present tense being used in Spanish where the perfect tense would be used in English. For example 'Vivo aquí hace dos años' means 'I HAVE lived here for two years'.
The English phrases "have you had" and "do you have" are not the same. Even if both were valid translations for the given Spanish, it's pointless to argue that one is "more natural" than the other without more context. You're quite right about Spanish present tense being flexible enough to accommodate different tenses in English. The reverse is also true.
Incidentlally, I think a much more likely translation of your example sentence is "I lived here two years ago." That's also not present tense in English, but it's a more accurate translation of "hace dos años," which makes the perfect tense sound awkward at best. A native Spanish speaker would surely use "por dos años," "durante dos años," or even "desde hace dos años" to say "for two years."
The word "absence" means the state of being away; the time during which one is away; the condition of not having something needed or desirable ; lack.this word is a noun The word "absent" means missing or not present; not exsistant;lacking; feeling or exhibiting inattentiveness. This is used as an adjective. (These definitions are according to the American Heritage Dictionary) My point is that the way this sentence is used (in the education section) it appears to me the english word that should be used is absent or absents or absentees not absence or absences
I'm sure this has already been addressed.
Ah yes. I see joshthegreat36 and simpsongeorge 8 months ago, jamaud 7 months ago, BPS-PenuelO 3 months ago, rspreng 2 years ago, fireman_biff 12 months ago, and Adina_atl 9 months ago.
An appropriate interpretation has been established several times already.
Although your version conveys almost exactly the same sense as the more literal translation, it is a very different construction. Duo is very unlikely to accept it as correct for that reason.
In my experience, the only times Duo accepts many different translations are:
1 . When ambiguities legitimately admit two or more different ways to translate a word or phrase
2 . When working with colloquialisms or idiomatic expressions in proverbs or other sayings that are not meant to be translated word-for-word
3 . When there is no English equivalent to a particular word or phrase in Spanish and you have to interpret the intended meaning
4 . When there is a convention for translating standard Spanish constructions to standard but different English constructions (think verbs like gustar)
5 . When there is enough vehement rejection of the more literal translation in favor of something else
There may be other instances that I don't recall and the last one is sort of a catchall that shouldn't count, since it's subject to change, but these should give you a pretty good idea of what's likely to happen here.