What is the rule that orients the noun before rather than after the possessive pronoun?
i.e. Minhas palavras versus Palavras minhas.
For some people it has no difference, for others using the possessive at the end makes it a bit stronger
You have to be careful though. With all the flexibility, you could end up constructing a sentence that means significantly different from what you intended.
I know what you mean, but do you have an example that you can think of where the flexibility thing could backfire on you in attempting to construct a sentence and coming up with something that you don't intend. I have seen examples of that with Spanish.
That's exactly what I was thinking, at least that would be the case in Spanish, which is very similar to Portuguese, nevertheless, it still doesn't work (10-03-2015).
Both are adjectives. We only placed them in different positions.
(In your English example, the preposition "of" justifies it being a pronoun).
But I agree "words of mine" sounds quite like it should.
It shouldn't, howfver the change in the order is only intended for focus change and catching the reader's atention. Not always kept in translation.
Is "palavras minhas" grammtically correct? English structure would say "minhas palavras"
Why the "de" was not an option? (Palavras de mihnas) Words of mine Can some one please explain to me so I can understand?!.
No, this is not the case for Portuguese. Both letters have a different sound.
Actually, 'words of mine' isn't incorrect. It's something you're more likely to encounter in a literary piece than in everyday situations.