"The priest had died during the night."

Translation:Prästen hade dött under natten.

March 13, 2015

22 Comments


https://www.duolingo.com/Jan-Olav

Important not to make an error about dö (die) and döda (kill). Dö - dog - dött and döda - dödade - dödat.

March 28, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Kalzani

Tack för förklaring

September 26, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/ahoyland2586

Why not i natten?

November 17, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/Jan-Olav

It would have to be 'i natt' and that would mean The priest died this night.

November 20, 2015

https://www.duolingo.com/elheyl

Is the "hade" in all of these actually pronounced "ha"?

May 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

No, it's pronounced as though it were written "hadde".

May 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/elheyl

Okay, thanks. I am confusing another comment I saw a few weeks ago that said the
"-de" ending in past tenses is not pronounced: "talade" is in fact spoken as "tala" - correct? I have no Swedish speaker to listen to, so trying to make sense of it all. I guess what is most confusing is that the program does correctly say "dom" for the pronoun "de", so when it pronounces the "-de" ending where it would not be spoken in normal speech it is less than helpful. Thanks again for your help.

May 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

That's true, most verbs drop the -de ending after an a, and other very similar verbs like sade (usually said 'sa') and lade (usually said 'la') drop the ending too, so it's totally reasonable to expect hade to drop it too. The reason it doesn't is probably that the form ha is already in use for the infinitive, so that it would cause confusion. (sa has the infinitive säga and la has lägga so they don't share the same problem).

I think it's reasonable that the TTS keeps the -de ending in longer verbs like talade where one might pronounce them in normal or slightly more careful speech (while one would still pronounce de as dom even in very careful/formal speech) but not reasonable that it says sade and lade which is really rare and basically just sounds unnatural.

May 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Lamontsson

Hi Arnauti - so are you saying that sometimes, when people are being less formal, they will say "de" as "de" rather than "dom"? That would clear something up for me, because I swear I have heard native speakers do that but it goes so fast I couldn't be sure (I've got to think about the next thing they are saying etc.) In particular, I feel that I may have noticed it when it's "the (plural) _adjective_nouns" - e.g. "Jag gillar de nordiska landerna" - I feel that's when a native speaker might just give a cursory "de". Have I got that right?

Secondly: When 'talade' is pronounced without the 'de'... wouldn't that sound too much like the infinitive "tala", or even "talar"? Thanks.

June 11, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

For the first question, yes, sure, you can hear that. There's a growing tendency that the written language influences the spoken language more and more. Some people will say de when they read aloud. (Especially people who don't read aloud a lot.) Some people think that saying de instead of dom sounds more formal and feel that it's more correct to stay close to the written letter rather than to the traditional pronunciation, while others just think it sounds unnatural. These things aren't totally linear, but generally people who are older and/or better educated are less likely to be affected by how things are written. For instance I once listened through a whole session with the Swedish Academy and found that its members say dom throughout even when reading their speeches aloud.

There are different dialects too, but generally in the dialects that make a distinction between de/dem, they tend to say de more like di rather than de.

Second question, when we say "han tala svenska" it does sound exactly like the infinitive but not close enough to the present tense to be confused with that. At least not in most dialects. So there's no real risk for confusion, but it can sound pretty sloppy when you drop them, too, especially if you aren't speaking all that fast.

To sum it up, my recommendation for a learner would be to always say de/dem as dom in all contexts, but to keep the endings on talade etc until you're starting to get pretty fluent.

June 11, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Lamontsson

OK thank you. Yes, well, I would pretty much always go with the most formal or correct way because I tend to do that even in English and I figure that I might sound a little weird but native speakers will know that I have learnt the 'formal' way of saying something and won't really care if it sounds too formal.

June 11, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

Hi again, I felt that my first answer was a bit unclear so I've edited it pretty heavily. Just FYI :)

June 11, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Lamontsson

OK no worries. I think I got it the first time anyway. ;-) The infinitive versus present question (as in, would 'tala' ever be confused for 'talar') is, now that I think about it, context based as well as missing the "rrr". But the reason I ask is, that I've been going through LasseMajas Detektivbyrå av Martin Widmark, with an audio book and the e-book and just very slowly reading and listening and paying attention to basically everything. Unfortunately the audio book doesn't say who is reading, but I've noticed that sometimes there is just no hint of the "rrr" in a normal present tense verb and have concluded that it's just not how you would actually say that word in the middle of the sentence because the 'r' is phonologically too tricky and would hold the sentence back too much. Off the top of my head, an example where he does that is: "Det är polismästaren som står framför den lilla kiosken vid kyrkan och LAPAR på en strutglass." - You absolutely don't hear the R in "lapar", it just sounds like "lapa", but when I tried to put the R in, I found it was very difficult to roll it onto the "på" and carry the sentence on, so I could see why the narrator drops it.

June 12, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Dave49059

The answer in the drop down is not consistent with the graded answer. The question translates to dodd or dog not the word provided as the correct answer

July 21, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

The machine tries to match your input to what it thinks is the closest accepted answer, so any accepted answer can get shown to you. The main answer (which is the answer you can see on top of this page) is Prästen hade dött under natten. The problem is that the machine generally sucks at picking out the most helpful correction.

September 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/erikvanrosmalen

Why avlidit and not dog?

August 26, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

See my answer to Dave49059 about how it works in general.
avlidit is a more formal word, maybe like 'passed away' or something like that. Since it's an accepted answer, it can get shown to you.

September 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/erikvanrosmalen

I understand, it looks and sounds similar to the Dutch 'overleden', I just didn't understand why my 'hade dott' wasn't approved...

September 17, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/BellaBliss

what does "hade omkommit'' mean?

September 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/Arnauti

The same as hade dött i.e. 'had died', only it also implies that he had died in an accident or some other more violent kind of death. Also see my answer to Dave49059 on this page about why answers like this can be displayed to you.

September 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/BellaBliss

Thank you Arnauti!

September 16, 2017

https://www.duolingo.com/xRevant

What is the difference between Dött och Dog?

October 21, 2018
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