"He likes the Chinese rice."
Translation:A él le gusta el arroz chino.
It's an idiomatic expression, to express "gustar".
A él, le gusta/le gustan...
A mi, me gusta/me gustan... A ella, le gusta/le gustan... A ellos, les gust/les gustan...
It's a very special structure, the verb "gustar" has to agree with the things liked by the subject, not by the subject itself.
A mi me gusta la mujer.
A mi me gustan las mujeres.
There's a verb/subject inversion, as if you say "la mujer me gusta" y "las mujeres me gustan", but the order is different.
Here is a short, direct answer:
"Gustar" is a little different than most verbs because it literally means "to be pleasing to". So, this sentence is actually saying "The Chinese rice is pleasing to him."
Here is a link with a thorough explanation:
A él and le are the indirect complement. so A is needed before él. The subject of the sentence is arroz chino.
It seems to me HE is the subject. The word he is the one taking the action, liking. The rice is the object upon which the action is taken. If the sentence were the Chinese rice is liked by him, IS would be verb and rice would be the subject.
Ltmurph, I am glad I can help you with this sentence.
The Chinese rice is actually the subject in this sentence. Can you guess why??? It's because the rice is pleasing to him! He is NOT pleasing to the rice...
I know that it seems like HE is the subject, but once you understand this concept it should all start coming together. You must also keep in mind that there are many reflexive verbs like gustar in spanish!
I didn't want to risk a heart, so called it "el arroz chino", but is this how Spanish speakers refer to fried rice? I.e. it's not "el arroz frito"?
Yes, arroz chino is what, at least in the U.S., we call fried rice. And, yes, duo marked it wrong the first time I got this question.
"Arroz chino", other name: "arroz frito". That's funny, because in France, we call it "riz cantonais" (cantonese rice) and it looks very different from your "fried rice".
Arroz chino/frito or fried rice: http://www.estampas.com/septimoconcurso/images/20/20_458651_f01.jpg OR https://cocineroaficionado.files.wordpress.com/2011/10/arroz-chino1.jpg
'French" Riz cantonais: http://www.muslimette-magazine.com/wp-content/uploads/2014/03/riz_cantonais.jpg
It seems every country has it own reciepe of "Chinese rice".
They should accept "fried rice" when we have the Spanish "Arroz chino" to translate!
No. This illustrates the difference between translation and interpretation. It may be called "fried rice" in some regional dialects, but the translation of riso cinese is "Chinese rice".
"Le gusta el arroz chino a él" was marked wrong. I've seen "a él" in other sentences at the end, why was it marked wrong here?
Thanks Steve842760. It is unfortunate that the Moderators have left several mis-leading comments here. Let me try to explain.
An English statement is most commonly written Subject - Verb - Object (SVO), so we say "I serve rice".
And in Spanish we say "Sirvo arroz" ; a similar SVO construction except the Subject and the Verb are combined in one word sirvo - "I serve".
There is a group of Spanish verbs that appear to be back-to-front. The one we usually encounter first is gustar.
So "I like rice" is "Me gusta el arroz" in Spanish. The Spanish sentence construction is Indirect Object - Verb - Subject. It helps to think of this literally as "To me - it is pleasing - the rice". Better English would be "Rice pleases me", but we would actually say "I like rice". [The sentence certainly is not reflexive (nor pronominal); the rice does not like itself in any way!]
We should now see that, although gustar is typically interpreted as "to like" (as it should be), it really means "to be pleasing".
At the beginning it seems quite strange to English speakers, but it is vital to your understanding of Spanish that you know how gustar (and its relatives) work.
Carefully work through the explanations at:
[Other good Spanish grammar websites are available]
So you should now have read that there are a few more verbs like GUSTAR:
aburrir - to bore
fascinar - to be fascinating to
bastar - to be sufficient
importar - to be important to
caer bien - to suit
caer mal - to not suit
interesar - to be interesting to
dar asco - to be loathsome
molestar - to be a bother
disgustar - to hate something
parecer - to appear to be
doler (o:ue) - to be painful
picar - to itch
encantar - to “love” something
quedar - to be left over, remain
faltar - to be lacking something
volver (o:ue) loco - to be crazy about
It is a really good idea to check all of these in a good dictionary. Some of them aren't as straighforward as gustar . You can start at http://www.wordreference.com/es/en/translation.asp?spen=gustar .
Can someone explain why "Él gusta el arroz de china" was not accepted? I know that if I back translate it would read: He likes the rice from China, but is it only that?
I think it is because gustar is a reflexive verb and requires a reflexive pronoun as a rule.
I believe "Él gusta el arroz de china" translates as "He likes China rice."
Duo said it is "El gusta del arroz china" which doesn't make any sence because "el arroz" means"the rice" but "del arroz" means"of the rice".
My Spanish teacher in Mexico said that the subject in 'gustar' type sentences (me gusta el chocolate) needed and article, and that Mexicans sometimes omit it ;)
Because the subject of the verb is el arroz and the pronoun le (duplicated by a él) is the indirect object of the verb.
That would mean"the rice of China"so that wouldn't just be talking about Chinese rice but all the Chinese rice in the world.
I just had a question about chinese food and used chino which was marked wrong. Should have been china. Now I use china and it's wrong! should have been chino. Show me the difference, please
chino/china is an adjective and must match the gender of the noun it modifies, hence (la) comida china (f), (el) arroz chino (m).